JAMB Physics

518 reviewed questions with answers and explanations.

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2004 · Question 7

A convex thin lens of focal length f forms a real image of an object beyond its focal point. Let u and v be the positive object and image distances. Which expression gives the magnitude of linear magnification?

  1. u/v + f
  2. u/f − f
  3. v/f − 1
  4. v/f + 1
Answer and explanation

C: v/f − 1

For a real image, using positive object and image distances, 1/f = 1/u + 1/v. Multiplying by v gives v/f = v/u + 1. The magnitude of linear magnification is v/u = v/f − 1; the image itself is inverted.

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2004 · Question 9

The pitch of a pure sound tone is primarily determined by its

  1. Timbre
  2. Harmonics
  3. Quality
  4. Frequency
Answer and explanation

D: Frequency

For a pure tone, pitch is primarily determined by frequency: higher frequency is heard as higher pitch. Timbre or quality distinguishes sounds with different waveform and harmonic content, rather than defining the frequency of a pure tone.

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2004 · Question 10

If the angle between two nonzero vectors P and Q is 0°, the vectors are said to

  1. Be perpendicular
  2. Be parallel
  3. Intersect at 60°
  4. Intersect at 45°
Answer and explanation

B: Be parallel

Two nonzero vectors with an angle of 0° point in the same direction and are parallel. Their cross product is zero and their dot product equals the product of their magnitudes; perpendicular vectors instead have a 90° angle.

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2004 · Question 14

I. Jet-propelled aircraft II Rocket propulsion III The recoil of a gun IV A person walking Which of the above is based on Newton’s third law of motion?

  1. I, II, III and IV
  2. I and III only
  3. I and II only
  4. I, II and III only
Answer and explanation

A: I, II, III and IV

All four involve equal and opposite forces on different bodies. Engines push exhaust backwards and receive forward thrust; a gun pushes a bullet forward and recoils. When walking, the foot pushes the ground backwards and the ground exerts forward friction on the foot.

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2004 · Question 15

In an ideal hydraulic press with pistons at the same level, a force of 40 N acts on an effort piston of area 0.4 m². The load force is 400 N. What is the load piston area?

  1. 8 m²
  2. 4 m²
  3. 2 m²
  4. 1 m²
Answer and explanation

B: 4 m²

The transmitted pressure is F₁/A₁ = 40/0.4 = 100 Pa. The load piston must have area A₂ = F₂/P = 400/100 = 4 m². This gives the same pressure at both pistons in the ideal hydraulic press.

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2004 · Question 18

Four forces act at O: 4 N horizontally left, 10 N horizontally right, 8 N at 60° above the rightward horizontal, and 6 N at 60° below it. What is the net horizontal force?

  1. 7√3 N rightwards
  2. 17 N rightwards
  3. √3 N rightwards
  4. 13 N rightwards
Answer and explanation

D: 13 N rightwards

Take rightwards as positive. The horizontal components add to −4 + 10 + 8 cos 60° + 6 cos 60° = −4 + 10 + 4 + 3 = 13 N. The angled forces both contribute rightwards, although their vertical components oppose each other.

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2004 · Question 22

At resonance in a series RLC radio tuning circuit, how are the positive inductive and capacitive reactances X_L and X_C related?

  1. X_L = 1/X_C
  2. X_L = X_C/2
  3. X_L = X_C
  4. X_L = 2X_C
Answer and explanation

C: X_L = X_C

At series resonance the inductive and capacitive reactances cancel. Since the net reactance is X_L − X_C, it vanishes when X_L = X_C. The ideal series impedance is then purely resistive.

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2004 · Question 23

Which is the de Broglie equation relating a material particle’s wavelength λ to its momentum p? Here h is Planck’s constant, c the speed of light, f frequency, E energy and d lattice spacing.

  1. λ = h/p
  2. λ = c/f
  3. λ = 2d sin θ
  4. λ = hc/E
Answer and explanation

A: λ = h/p

The de Broglie relation is λ = h/p, where p is particle momentum and h is Planck’s constant. It associates a wavelength with matter. The formulas c/f and hc/E apply directly to photons in vacuum, and 2d sin θ describes first-order Bragg diffraction.

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2004 · Question 24

Which option states the direction of resistance change implied by a semiconductor having a negative temperature coefficient?

  1. They have electrons and holes at high temperatures
  2. Their resistance is constantly changing with temperature
  3. Their resistance increases with temperature
  4. Their resistance decreases with temperature
Answer and explanation

D: Their resistance decreases with temperature

A negative temperature coefficient means resistance falls as temperature rises over the stated operating range. In many semiconductors, heating creates additional mobile carriers, which can increase conductivity and reduce resistance.

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2004 · Question 25

Which process produces light in a conventional fluorescent tube?

  1. Refraction of light by gas molecules
  2. Excitation of the gas followed by fluorescence of the phosphor coating
  3. Conduction of solar energy
  4. Thermal agitation of electrons in the tube
Answer and explanation

B: Excitation of the gas followed by fluorescence of the phosphor coating

An electric discharge excites mercury atoms in the tube. They emit ultraviolet radiation, which the phosphor coating absorbs and re-emits as visible light. The process uses excitation and fluorescence rather than simply heating a filament until it glows.

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2004 · Question 26

Before breakdown, the small reverse current in a reverse-biased p–n junction diode is carried by

  1. Electrons alone
  2. Majority carriers
  3. Minority carriers
  4. Positive holes alone
Answer and explanation

C: Minority carriers

Before reverse breakdown, the small reverse current in a junction diode is associated with minority carriers: electrons on the p side and holes on the n side. The reverse field sweeps these carriers across the junction.

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2004 · Question 27

What energy is stored in a linear inductor of inductance 5 mH carrying a current of 6 A?

  1. 1.8 × 10⁻² J
  2. 9.0 × 10⁻³ J
  3. 1.4 × 10⁻² J
  4. 9.0 × 10⁻² J
Answer and explanation

D: 9.0 × 10⁻² J

The magnetic energy stored in a linear inductor is U = ½LI². With L = 5 × 10⁻³ H and I = 6 A, U = ½ × 0.005 × 36 = 0.090 J, or 9.0 × 10⁻² J.

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2004 · Question 28

X-rays can reveal crystal structures by diffraction chiefly because they

  1. Have wavelengths comparable to atomic-plane spacings
  2. Have very long wavelengths
  3. Are very fast
  4. Are invisible
Answer and explanation

A: Have wavelengths comparable to atomic-plane spacings

X-ray wavelengths can be comparable to the spacing between atomic planes in a crystal. The resulting diffraction pattern depends on that spacing and arrangement, allowing crystal structure to be studied. Speed and invisibility alone do not provide this spatial resolution.

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2004 · Question 29

A series AC circuit has an rms source voltage of 12 V, resistance 8 Ω, inductive reactance 16 Ω and capacitive reactance 10 Ω. What is its rms current?

  1. 1.4 A
  2. 14.0 A
  3. 1.2 A
  4. 12.0 A
Answer and explanation

C: 1.2 A

The net reactance is 16 − 10 = 6 Ω. Thus Z = √(8² + 6²) = 10 Ω, and the rms current is I = V/Z = 12/10 = 1.2 A. Reactances subtract because their voltage contributions have opposite phases.

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2004 · Question 31

Transverse waves can be distinguished from longitudinal waves using the characteristic of

  1. Diffraction
  2. Polarization
  3. Reflection
  4. Refraction.
Answer and explanation

B: Polarization

Polarization selects a direction of transverse oscillation. A purely longitudinal wave oscillates along its direction of propagation and cannot be polarized in this way. Diffraction, reflection and refraction can occur for both types of wave.

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2004 · Question 32

When left in a freezer, a bottle full of water cracks on freezing into ice because of the

  1. Decreases in the volume of water
  2. Contraction of the bottle
  3. Expansion of the bottle
  4. Increase in the volume of water
Answer and explanation

D: Increase in the volume of water

Water expands when it freezes into ordinary ice, whose open molecular arrangement gives it a lower density. In a full, rigid bottle there is insufficient space for the increased volume, so the resulting pressure can crack the bottle.

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2004 · Question 34

By how much does the volume decrease when 450 kg of ice melts completely? Use ice density 900 kg m⁻³ and water density 1000 kg m⁻³.

  1. 0.05 m³
  2. 0.45 m³
  3. 4.50 m³
  4. 0.50 m³
Answer and explanation

A: 0.05 m³

The ice volume is 450/900 = 0.50 m³. The same mass of water occupies 450/1000 = 0.45 m³. The volume therefore decreases by 0.50 − 0.45 = 0.05 m³; mass is conserved during melting.

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2004 · Question 35

Within its Hooke’s-law range, a 50 N force stretches a wire from 20.00 m to 20.01 m. What force stretches the same wire from 20.00 m to 20.05 m?

  1. 100 N
  2. 50 N
  3. 250 N
  4. 200 N
Answer and explanation

C: 250 N

The first extension is 20.01 − 20.00 = 0.01 m. The required extension is 0.05 m, five times larger. Within the Hooke’s-law range, force is proportional to extension, so the required force is 5 × 50 = 250 N.

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2004 · Question 36

A shiny silver coating on the outside of a teapot primarily reduces heat loss by

  1. Convection and conduction
  2. Radiation
  3. Conduction
  4. Convection
Answer and explanation

B: Radiation

A shiny silver surface has low thermal emissivity, so it emits less thermal radiation than a dull surface at the same temperature. The coating does not remove heat transfer by air convection or conduction through the pot and its supports.

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2004 · Question 39

A 50 W heater raises the temperature of a 5 kg metal block by 12°C in 10 minutes. Assuming all heater energy heats the block, what is its specific heat capacity?

  1. 500 J kg⁻¹ K⁻¹
  2. 130 J kg⁻¹ K⁻¹
  3. 390 J kg⁻¹ K⁻¹
  4. 400 J kg⁻¹ K⁻¹
Answer and explanation

A: 500 J kg⁻¹ K⁻¹

In 10 minutes the heater supplies Q = Pt = 50 × 600 = 30 000 J. Using Q = mcΔT gives c = 30 000/(5 × 12) = 500 J kg⁻¹ K⁻¹. A rise of 12°C equals a rise of 12 K.

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2004 · Question 41

Which instrument is designed to obtain repeated charges of the same sign by electrostatic induction?

  1. Capacitor
  2. Electrophorus
  3. Electroscope
  4. Proof-plane
Answer and explanation

B: Electrophorus

An electrophorus uses a charged insulating base and a removable conducting plate. Bringing the plate near the base, grounding it, disconnecting the ground and lifting it produces a charged plate. The sequence can be repeated to obtain charges of the same sign.

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2004 · Question 44

Which statement distinguishes characteristic atomic X-rays from nuclear gamma rays?

  1. Characteristic X-rays arise from electronic transitions; nuclear gamma rays arise from nuclear transitions
  2. X-rays are electromagnetic radiation; gamma rays are negatively charged radiation
  3. X-rays always have higher frequencies than gamma rays
  4. X-rays are always more penetrating than gamma rays
Answer and explanation

A: Characteristic X-rays arise from electronic transitions; nuclear gamma rays arise from nuclear transitions

Characteristic X-rays arise from transitions involving atomic electrons. Nuclear gamma rays arise from transitions between nuclear energy levels. Both are uncharged electromagnetic radiation, and their energy ranges can overlap, so origin is the useful distinction here.

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2004 · Question 45

A 6 Ω resistor and a 3 Ω resistor are connected in parallel across an ideal 12 V source. What is the ratio of power dissipated in the 6 Ω resistor to that in the 3 Ω resistor?

  1. 2 : 3
  2. 1 : 2
  3. 1 : 3
  4. 2 : 1
Answer and explanation

B: 1 : 2

Both parallel resistors have the same 12 V across them. Their powers are P₆ = 12²/6 = 24 W and P₃ = 12²/3 = 48 W. Thus P₆ : P₃ = 24 : 48 = 1 : 2.

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2004 · Question 47

Which sample contains mobile ions and acts as an electrolytic solution?

  1. Grape juice
  2. Pure sugar dissolved in pure water
  3. Pure alcohol
  4. Paraffin
Answer and explanation

A: Grape juice

Grape juice contains mobile ions from dissolved acids and mineral salts, so it conducts electricity as an electrolytic solution. Pure sugar solution is molecular rather than ionic, while pure alcohol and paraffin do not supply comparable mobile ions.

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2004 · Question 50

Three capacitors of 0.3 μF, 0.5 μF and 0.2 μF are all used in a series/parallel combination between two terminals. What is the minimum equivalent capacitance, rounded to one decimal place in μF?

  1. 0.3 μF
  2. 1.0 μF
  3. 0.1 μF
  4. 0.5 μF
Answer and explanation

C: 0.1 μF

Connecting all three capacitors in series gives the smallest equivalent capacitance. In μF units, 1/C = 1/0.3 + 1/0.5 + 1/0.2 = 31/3. Thus C = 3/31 ≈ 0.0968 μF, which rounds to 0.1 μF to one decimal place.

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2003 · Question 4

Which property of water helps prevent droplets passing through the small gaps of a tightly woven silk umbrella until the inside is touched?

  1. Osmotic pressure
  2. Capillarity
  3. Surface tension
  4. Viscosity
Answer and explanation

C: Surface tension

Water can form curved films across the small spaces in a fabric. Surface tension helps those films resist passage of water; touching the inside can disturb the film and promote wetting through the fabric.

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2003 · Question 10

A uniform 90 cm lever is pivoted at its centre. A 30 N load hangs 15 cm from its left end. What downward force at the right end maintains horizontal equilibrium?

  1. 20 N
  2. 30 N
  3. 60 N
  4. 15 N
Answer and explanation

A: 20 N

The fulcrum is 45 cm from either end. The load arm is 45 −15 =30 cm, while the effort arm is 45 cm. Balancing moments gives F ×45 =30 ×30, so F =20 N.

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2003 · Question 15

An aluminium bar has Young’s modulus 7.0 ×10¹⁰ Pa and density 2.7 ×10³ kg/m³. Estimate its longitudinal bar-wave speed using v =√(Y/ρ), to two significant figures.

  1. 3.6 ×10³ m/s
  2. 5.1 ×10³ m/s
  3. 2.8 ×10³ m/s
  4. 4.2 ×10³ m/s
Answer and explanation

B: 5.1 ×10³ m/s

For longitudinal waves in a slender elastic bar, v =√(Y/ρ). Here v =√(7.0 ×10¹⁰/2.7 ×10³) ≈5092 m/s, or 5.1 ×10³ m/s to two significant figures.

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2003 · Question 16

Thermal equilibrium between two objects exists when

  1. The heat capacities of both objects are the same
  2. One objects loses heat continuously to the other
  3. The temperatures of both objects are equal
  4. The quantity of heat in both objects is the same.
Answer and explanation

C: The temperatures of both objects are equal

Objects in thermal equilibrium have equal temperatures and no net heat transfer between them. Their heat capacities, masses and internal energies can still differ.

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2003 · Question 17

At twice the distance from an isotropic point source of sound in a lossless medium, what factor multiplies the original sound intensity?

  1. 2.00
  2. 0.25
  3. 4.00
  4. 0.50
Answer and explanation

B: 0.25

For a point source radiating uniformly without absorption, intensity is power divided by 4πr². Doubling distance makes the area four times larger, so intensity becomes one quarter of its original value.

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2003 · Question 18

In the ideal model of two sufficiently large parallel plane mirrors with reflecting faces toward one another, how many images can repeated reflection form of an object between them?

  1. Four
  2. Two
  3. Eight
  4. Infinitely many
Answer and explanation

D: Infinitely many

In the ideal model, two parallel facing mirrors reflect the object and each other’s images repeatedly. There is no final reflection order, so the construction gives infinitely many images.

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2003 · Question 19

A 2000 W heater warms a 5 kg metal object initially at 10°C. Its temperature rises 30°C in 10 minutes. Assuming all supplied heat warms the object, find its total heat capacity.

  1. 1.2 ×10⁴ J/K
  2. 6.0 ×10⁴ J/K
  3. 8.0 ×10³ J/K
  4. 4.0 ×10⁴ J/K
Answer and explanation

D: 4.0 ×10⁴ J/K

The heater supplies Q =Pt =2000 ×600 =1.2 ×10⁶ J. Heat capacity of the whole object is C =Q/ΔT =1.2 ×10⁶/30 =4.0 ×10⁴ J/K. Mass is needed for specific heat capacity, not total heat capacity.

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2003 · Question 20

An object is 10 cm from a convex lens and forms a real image on a screen 25 cm from the lens. Find the magnitude of its linear magnification.

  1. 2.5
  2. 1.5
  3. 0.4
  4. 15.0
Answer and explanation

A: 2.5

The magnitude of linear magnification is image distance divided by object distance. Thus |m| =25/10 =2.5;the real image is inverted but 2.5 times as tall.

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2003 · Question 22

A vessel wall conducts 1.2 ×10⁶ J in 1 s with a uniform temperature gradient 30 K/m and thermal conductivity 400 W/(m·K). Find the area normal to heat flow.

  1. 1.0 ×10³ m²
  2. 1.0 ×10² m²
  3. 9.0 ×10⁴ m²
  4. 9.0 ×10² m²
Answer and explanation

B: 1.0 ×10² m²

Fourier’s conduction law gives heat rate kA times the temperature-gradient magnitude. Therefore A =(1.2 ×10⁶/1)/(400 ×30) =100 m².

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2003 · Question 23

A saturation-pressure table gives 17.50 mmHg at 20°C. Actual water-vapour pressure is 10 mmHg at 20°C. Find relative humidity to the nearest whole percent.

  1. 57%
  2. 17.5%
  3. 10%
  4. 170%
Answer and explanation

A: 57%

Relative humidity is actual vapour pressure divided by saturation vapour pressure at the same temperature, then multiplied by 100. Thus RH =100 ×10/17.50 ≈57.14%, or 57% to the nearest whole percent.

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2003 · Question 24

In the paraxial model, where must an object be placed in front of a concave mirror to produce an image at infinity?

  1. At centre of curvature
  2. Between the principal focus and the centre of curvature
  3. At the pole of the mirror
  4. At the principal focus
Answer and explanation

D: At the principal focus

In the paraxial model, a point at the principal focus of a concave mirror reflects into parallel rays. The image distance is therefore infinite.

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2003 · Question 25

Neglecting end correction, a pipe of lengthl is closed at one end and open at the other. If sound speed isv, find its fundamental frequency.

  1. v/(2 l)
  2. 2 v/l
  3. v/(5 l)
  4. v/(4 l)
Answer and explanation

D: v/(4 l)

The fundamental mode of a pipe closed at one end has a displacement node at the closed end and an antinode at the open end. Its length is one quarter wavelength, so f =v/(4 l).

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2003 · Question 29

Two 2 Ω resistors in parallel are connected in series with a third 2 Ω resistor. Each resistor has a maximum allowed dissipation 18 W. Find the maximum total dissipation without exceeding any resistor’s limit.

  1. 9 W
  2. 27 W
  3. 5 W
  4. 18 W
Answer and explanation

B: 27 W

The single series 2 Ω resistor carries the full currentI, while each parallel 2 Ω branch carriesI/2. Its 18 W limit givesI² ×2 =18, orI =3 A. The branches each dissipate 4.5 W, totaling 27 W.

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2003 · Question 31

Which listed pair spans the widest interval in the usual visible spectrum ordering?

  1. Green and yellow
  2. Indigo and violet
  3. Orange and red
  4. Blue and red
Answer and explanation

D: Blue and red

Red and blue occupy well-separated regions of the visible spectrum. Each other pair listed consists of neighbouring colours, so blue and red span the widest spectral interval among these choices.

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2003 · Question 34

Which traditional primary cell was commonly used for brief intermittent operation of electric bells?

  1. Nickel-iron accumulator
  2. Lead-acid accumulator
  3. Daniell cell
  4. Leclanché cell
Answer and explanation

D: Leclanché cell

The traditional Leclanché cell was widely used for intermittent electric-bell circuits. Rest periods allow it to recover from polarization, making brief intermittent operation suitable.

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2003 · Question 39

When a semiconductor p–n junction diode is forward biased normally, its depletion layer

  1. Narrows
  2. Remains constant
  3. Widens then narrows
  4. Widens
Answer and explanation

A: Narrows

Forward bias opposes the junction’s built-in electric field and lowers its potential barrier. The depletion region narrows, allowing greater carrier injection across the junction.

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2003 · Question 40

A nucleus has less mass than the sum of its separated constituent protons and neutrons. What is the energy equivalent of this mass defect called?

  1. Stability
  2. Lost energy
  3. Work function
  4. Binding energy
Answer and explanation

D: Binding energy

A bound nucleus has less rest mass than its separated nucleons. The mass defect multiplied byc² is its binding energy, the energy required to separate it completely into those nucleons.

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2003 · Question 41

An electron drops from an excited level to the ground state, emitting light of frequency 8.0 ×10¹⁴ Hz. Find the emitted photon energy using h =6.6 ×10⁻³⁴ J·s.

  1. 5.28 ×10¹⁹ J
  2. 8.25 ×10¹⁹ J
  3. 5.28 ×10⁻¹⁹ J
  4. 8.25 ×10⁻¹⁹ J
Answer and explanation

C: 5.28 ×10⁻¹⁹ J

An emitted photon has energy E =hf. With h =6.6 ×10⁻³⁴ J·s and f =8.0 ×10¹⁴ Hz, E =5.28 ×10⁻¹⁹ J. This equals the electron’s energy-level decrease.

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2003 · Question 42

Fission converts 0.01% of a 1.0 g sample’s mass into released energy. Find that energy using c =3.0 ×10⁸ m/s.

  1. 9.0 ×10¹⁰ J
  2. 6.3 ×10¹¹ J
  3. 9.0 ×10¹¹ J
  4. 9.0 ×10⁹ J
Answer and explanation

D: 9.0 ×10⁹ J

A mass loss of 0.01% of 1.0 g is 10⁻⁴ ×10⁻³ =10⁻⁷ kg. Hence E =Δmc² =10⁻⁷(3.0 ×10⁸)² =9.0 ×10⁹ J.

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2003 · Question 44

A sinusoidal current with peak 10 A passes through a 12 Ω resistor. Find its average power dissipation over a complete cycle.

  1. 120 W
  2. 20 W
  3. 600 W
  4. 1200 W
Answer and explanation

C: 600 W

For sinusoidal current of peak 10 A, the mean square current is 10²/2 =50 A². Average resistor power is I_RMS²R =50 ×12 =600 W.

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2003 · Question 45

Over an ordinary temperature range near room temperature, which statement usually distinguishes a pure metal from an intrinsic semiconductor?

  1. Metal resistance increases with temperature, while intrinsic semiconductor resistance decreases
  2. Metals are always harder than semiconductors
  3. Metals have forbidden band gaps but semiconductors do not
  4. Metal resistance decreases with temperature, while intrinsic semiconductor resistance increases
Answer and explanation

A: Metal resistance increases with temperature, while intrinsic semiconductor resistance decreases

For ordinary metals near room temperature, heating increases lattice scattering and resistance. In an intrinsic semiconductor, heating creates more charge carriers, so resistance generally decreases over that range.

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2003 · Question 47

An ammeter reads 1.20 A steadily while 0.990 g of copper is deposited in 40 minutes. The electrochemical equivalent of copper is 3.3 × 10⁻⁴ g C⁻¹. What correction must be added to the ammeter reading?

  1. 0.05 A
  2. 0.06 A
  3. 0.03 A
  4. 0.04 A
Answer and explanation

A: 0.05 A

Faraday’s law gives Q = m/z = 0.990/(3.3 × 10⁻⁴) = 3000 C. The deposition time is 2400 s, so the actual current is 1.25 A. Add 1.25 − 1.20 = 0.05 A to the meter reading.

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2003 · Question 48

The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted from a metal surface is 0.34 eV. The work function is 1.83 eV. Find the magnitude of the stopping potential.

  1. 1.09 V
  2. 2.17 V
  3. 0.34 V
  4. 1.49 V
Answer and explanation

C: 0.34 V

The stopping potential satisfies eV_s = K_max. An electron with kinetic energy 0.34 eV is stopped by a potential difference of 0.34 V. The work function helps determine the incident photon energy, but is not added to the stopping potential.

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2003 · Question 49

At which of the listed angles between velocity v and a nonzero magnetic field B is the force on a moving charge half its maximum magnitude?

  1. 90°
  2. 45°
  3. 30°
Answer and explanation

D: 30°

The magnetic force magnitude is F = |q|vB sin θ. Half the maximum force requires sin θ = 1/2. Of the listed angles, 30° satisfies this condition; 150° would also do so if it were offered.

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2003 · Question 50

The background-subtracted count rate of a radioactive sample is 800 counts per minute. Its half-life is 4 days. With unchanged detection conditions, what will the sample count rate be 16 days later?

  1. 50 counts/min
  2. 25 counts/min
  3. 200 counts/min
  4. 100 counts/min
Answer and explanation

A: 50 counts/min

Sixteen days contains 16/4 = 4 half-lives. The count rate due to the sample therefore falls to 800 × (1/2)⁴ = 50 counts per minute, with the same detector arrangement.

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2002 · Question 4

In a hydrostatic model, the head-to-feet blood-pressure difference is 1.65 ×10⁴ Pa. Find the vertical height difference using density 1.1 ×10³ kg/m³ and g =10 m/s².

  1. 1.5 m
  2. 2.0 m
  3. 0.6 m
  4. 0.5 m
Answer and explanation

A: 1.5 m

For the stated hydrostatic model, ΔP =ρgh. Thus h =(1.65 ×10⁴)/(1.1 ×10³ ×10) =1.5 m.

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2002 · Question 5

If the net force acting on a particle remains zero, its linear momentum will

  1. Be constant
  2. Increase
  3. Increase then decrease
  4. Decrease
Answer and explanation

A: Be constant

The net force equals the time rate of change of momentum: F_net =dp/dt. If the net force remains zero, momentum has zero rate of change and stays constant.

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2002 · Question 7

On a wire’s elastic loading curve, force rises linearly from 0.10 N at extensionE =0.05 m to 0.20 N at extensionF =0.10 m. Find the additional energy stored fromE toF.

  1. 1.5 ×10⁻² J
  2. 7.5 ×10⁻³ J
  3. 7.5 ×10⁻¹ J
  4. 2.5 ×10⁻³ J
Answer and explanation

B: 7.5 ×10⁻³ J

Between extensions 0.05 m and 0.10 m, force rises linearly from 0.10 N to 0.20 N. The added elastic energy is the trapezium area:½(0.10 +0.20)(0.10 −0.05) =0.0075 J.

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2002 · Question 8

The separation between two 10 kg point masses is tripled. What fraction of their original gravitational attraction remains?

  1. One ninth
  2. One quarter
  3. One third
  4. One half
Answer and explanation

A: One ninth

Gravitational attraction varies inversely with separation squared. Replacing r by 3 r gives F_new/F_old =r²/(3 r)² =1/9. The masses remain unchanged.

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2002 · Question 10

The component of force along motion rises linearly from zero at displacement 0 toF newtons at displacementx metres. Find the work done over that interval.

  1. F/x J
  2. Fx² J
  3. Fx/2 J
  4. Fx J
Answer and explanation

C: Fx/2 J

Work is the area under the force-distance graph. A force rising linearly from zero toF over distancex forms a triangle, so W =½ ×x ×F =Fx/2.

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2002 · Question 12

Two forces act on a body:10 N north and 10 N east. Find the resultant magnitude and its direction measured from north.

  1. 20 N,45° west of north
  2. 10√2 N,45° west of north
  3. 10√2 N,45° east of north
  4. 20 N,45° east of north
Answer and explanation

C: 10√2 N,45° east of north

North and east components are perpendicular and both 10 N. The magnitude is√(10² +10²) =10√2 N, and equal components give 45° east of north.

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2002 · Question 15

Which eye defect is commonly corrected by adding cylindrical power to a spectacle lens?

  1. Presbyopia
  2. Chromatic aberration
  3. Myopia
  4. Astigmatism
Answer and explanation

D: Astigmatism

Regular astigmatism gives different focusing powers in different directions across the eye. A cylindrical lens supplies direction-dependent power to compensate for that difference.

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2002 · Question 16

Which listed quantity is transported from place to place by a travelling wave?

  1. Amplitude
  2. Wavelength
  3. Frequency
  4. Energy
Answer and explanation

D: Energy

A travelling wave transfers energy from one region to another. Amplitude, wavelength and frequency describe the wave, while energy is what the propagating disturbance transports.

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2002 · Question 18

A 0.6 m stretched string fixed at both ends has fundamental frequency 220 Hz. Find the transverse-wave speed.

  1. 264 ms-1
  2. 132 ms-1
  3. 66 ms-1
  4. 528 ms-1
Answer and explanation

A: 264 ms-1

The fundamental mode of a string fixed at both ends has half a wavelength along its length. Thus λ =2 L =1.2 m and v =fλ =220 ×1.2 =264 m/s.

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2002 · Question 19

Heat is carried away from a motor-car radiator’s fins by air flowing over them mainly through

  1. Radiation and conduction
  2. Radiation
  3. Conduction
  4. Convection
Answer and explanation

D: Convection

Air flowing over radiator fins carries heat away by forced convection. Heat first reaches the fin surfaces through the metal, but its transfer from the surface into moving air is convective.

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2002 · Question 21

At fixed liquid temperature, blowing relatively dry air across its surface aids evaporation mainly by

  1. Reducing vapour partial pressure in the air just above the liquid
  2. Reducing the liquid’s density
  3. Increasing the liquid’s exposed surface area
  4. Increasing the liquid’s temperature
Answer and explanation

A: Reducing vapour partial pressure in the air just above the liquid

Moving relatively dry air sweeps vapour away from just above the liquid. This lowers the local vapour partial pressure and reduces condensation back onto the liquid, increasing net evaporation.

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2002 · Question 22

Find the pressure of 3 mol of ideal gas at 27°C in volume 10⁻³ m³. Use R =8.3 J/(mol·K) and 27°C ≈300 K.

  1. 7.47 ×10⁵ Pa
  2. 2.49 ×10⁶ Pa
  3. 7.47 ×10⁶ Pa
  4. 2.49 ×10⁵ Pa
Answer and explanation

C: 7.47 ×10⁶ Pa

Using 27°C ≈300 K, the ideal-gas law gives P =nRT/V =(3 ×8.3 ×300)/10⁻³ =7.47 ×10⁶ Pa. Temperature must be in kelvin.

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2002 · Question 23

To produce an enlarged and erect image with a concave mirror, the object must be positioned

  1. Between the principal focus and the pole
  2. Between the principal focus and centre of curvature
  3. Beyond the centre of curvature
  4. At the principal focus
Answer and explanation

A: Between the principal focus and the pole

With an object inside the focal length of a concave mirror, reflected rays diverge and their backward extensions form an upright virtual image. Its magnification is greater than one.

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2002 · Question 24

The colours seen in soap bubbles are due to

  1. Refraction
  2. Diffraction
  3. Interference
  4. Dispersion
Answer and explanation

C: Interference

Light reflected from the front and back surfaces of the thin soap film takes different optical paths. Their interference reinforces some wavelengths and suppresses others, producing colours that vary with film thickness.

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2002 · Question 25

The fading persistence of sound in a room through many overlapping reflections after the source stops is called

  1. Reverberation
  2. Acoustic vibration
  3. Rarefaction
  4. Echo
Answer and explanation

A: Reverberation

Reverberation is the fading persistence of sound caused by many overlapping reflections after the source stops. A distinct delayed repetition is called an echo.

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2002 · Question 29

Under Newton’s law of cooling with a constant heat-transfer coefficient, the heat-loss rate of a warmer body is proportional to

  1. Temperature of its surroundings
  2. Difference in temperature between the body and its surrounding
  3. Temperature of the body
  4. Ratio of the temperature of the body to that of its surrounding.
Answer and explanation

B: Difference in temperature between the body and its surrounding

Newton’s law of cooling models heat-loss rate as H =k(T_body −T_surroundings) when the heat-transfer coefficient is effectively constant. It is the temperature difference that drives the heat flow.

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2002 · Question 30

An electric iron’s resistive element is rated 1000 W at 230 V. Find its resistance at the rated operating condition.

  1. 57.6 Ohms
  2. 55.9 Ohms
  3. 51.9 Ohms
  4. 52.9 Ohms
Answer and explanation

D: 52.9 Ohms

For a resistive element, P =V²/R. Therefore R =230²/1000 =52.9 Ω at its rated operating condition.

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2002 · Question 31

An electric-field sketch shows arrows pointing away from each of two point chargesX andY. What are their signs?

  1. Both X and Y are positive
  2. X is positive and Y is negative
  3. X is negative and Y is positive
  4. Both X and Y are negative.
Answer and explanation

A: Both X and Y are positive

Electric field lines point away from positive charges and toward negative charges. Since the arrows emerge from bothX andY, both charges are positive.

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2002 · Question 32

Which part of the eye changes the pupil’s size to control the amount of light reaching the retina?

  1. Iris
  2. Optic nerve
  3. Cornea
  4. Retina
Answer and explanation

A: Iris

Muscles in the iris change the pupil’s diameter, controlling how much light enters the eye and reaches the retina. The iris therefore acts as the adjustable aperture.

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2002 · Question 36

A 10 μF capacitor carries charge 100 μC. Find its stored energy.

  1. 5 ×10⁻⁴ J
  2. 4 ×10⁻³ J
  3. 4 ×10² J
  4. 5 ×10⁴ J
Answer and explanation

A: 5 ×10⁻⁴ J

Capacitor energy is U =Q²/(2 C). With Q =100 ×10⁻⁶ C and C =10 ×10⁻⁶ F, U =(10⁻⁴)²/(2 ×10⁻⁵) =5 ×10⁻⁴ J.

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2002 · Question 37

Across 12 V, a circuit draws 2 A through a 2 Ω resistor, a parallel pair of 3 Ω andX, and a 1.5 Ω resistor, in that series order. FindX.

  1. 15 Ω
  2. 12 Ω
  3. 9 Ω
  4. 6 Ω
Answer and explanation

A: 15 Ω

Total resistance is 12/2 =6 Ω. The parallel pair therefore has 6 −2 −1.5 =2.5 Ω. Solving 1/2.5 =1/3 +1/X gives 1/X =1/15, so X =15 Ω.

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2002 · Question 39

Which particle normally triggers the fission chain reaction in a nuclear fission reactor?

  1. Electron
  2. Neutron
  3. Photon
  4. Proton
Answer and explanation

B: Neutron

A neutron absorbed by a suitable fissile nucleus can trigger fission. The resulting fission releases more neutrons, which can sustain the chain reaction in a reactor.

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2002 · Question 40

At what frequency does a 2.5 μF capacitor have reactance 250 Ω?

  1. 200π Hz
  2. π/800 Hz
  3. 2000π Hz
  4. 800/π Hz
Answer and explanation

D: 800/π Hz

Capacitive reactance is X_C =1/(2πfC). Thus f =1/(2π ×250 ×2.5 ×10⁻⁶) =800/π Hz.

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2002 · Question 41

What percentage of the original undecayed nuclei remains after five half-lives, rounded to the nearest whole percent?

  1. 1 %
  2. 3 %
  3. 5 %
  4. 8 %
Answer and explanation

B: 3 %

After five half-lives, the fraction of original undecayed nuclei is(1/2)⁵ =1/32. As a percentage this is 3.125%, which rounds to 3% to the nearest whole percent.

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2002 · Question 43

In the nuclear reaction ²³₁₁Na +X → ²⁰₉F +⁴₂He, identify particleX.

  1. Neutron
  2. Alpha
  3. Gamma
  4. Beta
Answer and explanation

A: Neutron

Conservation of nucleon number gives 23 +A_X =20 +4, so A_X =1. Conservation of charge gives 11 +Z_X =9 +2, so Z_X =0. A particle with mass number 1 and charge number 0 is a neutron.

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2002 · Question 45

Which feature helps make a moving-coil galvanometer sensitive to small currents?

  1. Few turns in its coil
  2. A strong permanent magnet producing a strong field
  3. A small coil area
  4. Stiff control springs producing a large restoring couple
Answer and explanation

B: A strong permanent magnet producing a strong field

A stronger magnetic field gives a larger turning effect on the current-carrying coil. This improves current sensitivity when coil turns, area and spring stiffness are unchanged.

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2002 · Question 46

Pure silicon can be converted to a p-type material by adding a controlled amount of

  1. Pentavalent atoms
  2. Trivalent atoms
  3. Hexavalent atoms
  4. Tetravalent atoms
Answer and explanation

B: Trivalent atoms

Trivalent dopants have one fewer valence electron than silicon. They introduce acceptor states and holes, making holes the majority carriers in p-type silicon.

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2002 · Question 47

For a fixed power transmitted through a line, using a higher voltage mainly reduces

  1. Resistive heating in the transmission conductors
  2. Magnetic flux leakage
  3. Hysteresis loss
  4. Eddy-current loss
Answer and explanation

A: Resistive heating in the transmission conductors

For the same transmitted power, increasing voltage reduces current because I =P/V. Resistive heating in the transmission conductors is I²R, so reducing current sharply reduces this loss.

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2002 · Question 49

Find the energy of a photon of frequency 3.0 ×10⁵ Hz to two significant figures. Use h =6.63 ×10⁻³⁴ J·s.

  1. 2.0 ×10⁻²⁹ J
  2. 2.0 ×10⁻²⁸ J
  3. 1.3 ×10⁻²⁹ J
  4. 1.3 ×10⁻²⁸ J
Answer and explanation

B: 2.0 ×10⁻²⁸ J

Photon energy is E =hf =(6.63 ×10⁻³⁴)(3.0 ×10⁵) =1.989 ×10⁻²⁸ J. To two significant figures this is 2.0 ×10⁻²⁸ J.

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2002 · Question 50

The carbon-granule microphone works on the principle of change in

  1. Capacitance
  2. Voltage
  3. Inductance
  4. Resistance
Answer and explanation

D: Resistance

Sound pressure changes the contact between carbon granules, varying their electrical resistance. With an applied bias, this resistance change produces a corresponding electrical signal.

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2001 · Question 1

Simple pendulums P,Q,R,S,T andU hang from a common support. T has the same length asP; R is shorter, while Q,S andU are longer. Which resonates withP whenP oscillates with small amplitude?

  1. T
  2. U
  3. R and T
  4. Q and R
Answer and explanation

A: T

For small oscillations, a simple pendulum’s natural period depends on its length, T =2π√(L/g). T has the same length asP, so it has the same natural frequency and resonates withP.

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2001 · Question 5

A metal sphere of radius 3 cm is fully immersed in water in a vertical cylindrical vessel without overflow. The water level rises 1 cm. Find the vessel’s internal radius.

  1. 12 cm
  2. 1 cm
  3. 3 cm
  4. 6 cm
Answer and explanation

D: 6 cm

The displaced volume equals the sphere volume:πR² ×1 =(4/3)π ×3³. Cancellingπ gives R² =36, hence the cylinder radius is 6 cm.

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2001 · Question 8

For a real machine with energy losses and efficiency below 100%, which relationship holds?

  1. Work output exceeds work input
  2. Load always exceeds effort
  3. Effort always exceeds load
  4. Velocity ratio exceeds mechanical advantage
Answer and explanation

D: Velocity ratio exceeds mechanical advantage

For a machine, efficiency =MA/VR. Energy losses make efficiency less than one, so mechanical advantage MA must be less than velocity ratio VR.

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2001 · Question 10

Ice cubes are added to warm water in a glass. Which pair of heat-transfer mechanisms mainly cools the water and glass?

  1. Conduction only
  2. Convection only
  3. Conduction and convection
  4. Convection and radiation
Answer and explanation

C: Conduction and convection

Heat reaches the ice by conduction at contacting surfaces and by convection as water circulates and carries thermal energy. Conduction through the glass also helps it cool toward the water temperature.

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2001 · Question 13

Compared with a simple astronomical refracting telescope, a traditional terrestrial telescope includes an extra erecting lens mainly for

  1. Improving the sharpness
  2. Creating an inverted image
  3. Magnification of the image
  4. Erection of the image
Answer and explanation

D: Erection of the image

A simple astronomical telescope gives an inverted view. The extra erecting lens in a traditional terrestrial telescope inverts that intermediate image again, producing an upright view.

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2001 · Question 14

A convex car mirror has radius of curvature 1 m. A vehicle is 4 m in front of it. Using the paraxial mirror formula, find the image distance behind the mirror.

  1. 8/7 m
  2. 4/9 m
  3. 9/2 m
  4. 4/7 m
Answer and explanation

B: 4/9 m

A convex mirror has focal length−R/2 =−0.5 m. From 1/f =1/u +1/v with u =4 m,1/v =−2 −1/4 =−9/4, so v =−4/9 m: the image is 4/9 m behind the mirror.

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2001 · Question 15

A ray enters a transparent medium from air. Its incident ray makes angleα with the surface, while its refracted ray makes angleβ with the normal. Taking air’s refractive index as 1, find the medium’s refractive index.

  1. cosα/sinβ
  2. sinα/sinβ
  3. cosβ/sinα
  4. sinβ/sinα
Answer and explanation

A: cosα/sinβ

The incident angle from the normal is 90° −α, becauseα is measured from the surface. Snell’s law for air gives n =sin(90° −α)/sinβ =cosα/sinβ.

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2001 · Question 20

Which listed substance is used as the gas in primary gas thermometry to determine thermodynamic temperature?

  1. Alcohol
  2. Mercury
  3. Helium
  4. Platinum
Answer and explanation

C: Helium

Helium gas is used in primary gas thermometry because its pressure, volume or sound speed can be related to thermodynamic temperature. It remains gaseous over a wide range and can be studied in the dilute-gas limit.

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2001 · Question 22

A 6 V d.c. supply drives 3 Ω and 1 Ω resistors in series with a parallel pair of 10 Ω and 5 Ω resistors. Find the total currentI before it splits between the parallel branches.

  1. 3/8 A
  2. 9/11 A
  3. 11/9 A
  4. 8/3 A
Answer and explanation

B: 9/11 A

The 10 Ω and 5 Ω branches have equivalent resistance 10/3 Ω. In series with 3 Ω and 1 Ω, the total is 22/3 Ω. Thus I =6/(22/3) =9/11 A.

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2001 · Question 23

Capacitors P =2 μF and Q =4 μF are connected in parallel across the same d.c. voltage. Find the ratio of energy stored inP to that inQ.

  1. 4 : 1
  2. 2 : 1
  3. 1 : 4
  4. 1 : 2
Answer and explanation

D: 1 : 2

Both parallel capacitors have the same voltage. Since energy is½CV², their energy ratio is C_P/C_Q =2/4 =1/2, or 1:2.

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2001 · Question 25

Initially uncharged capacitors C₁ =2 μF,C₂ =6 μF andC₃ =3 μF are connected in one series chain across 12 V. Find their final voltages in that order.

  1. 4 V, 6 V and 2 V
  2. 2 V, 6 V and 4 V
  3. 6 V, 4 V and 2 V
  4. 6 V, 2 V and 4 V
Answer and explanation

D: 6 V, 2 V and 4 V

In an initially uncharged series chain, all three capacitors acquire equal charge. The equivalent capacitance is 1 μF, giving charge 12 μC. Their voltages are 12/2 =6 V,12/6 =2 V and 12/3 =4 V.

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2001 · Question 29

In a Daniell cell, the depolarizing solution, positive electrode and negative electrode are respectively

  1. Copper sulfate, copper and zinc
  2. Manganese dioxide, carbon and zinc
  3. Sulfuric acid, lead dioxide and lead
  4. Potassium hydroxide, nickel and iron
Answer and explanation

A: Copper sulfate, copper and zinc

In a Daniell cell, zinc is oxidized at the negative electrode and copper ions are reduced at the positive copper electrode. Copper sulfate supplies those ions and is traditionally described as the depolarizer.

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2001 · Question 30

A closed cube of side 0.5 m lies in a uniform electric fieldE parallel to one pair of opposite-face normals. Find its net outward electric flux.

  1. 0.5 E
  2. 2.0 E
  3. 0.2 E
  4. 0.0 E
Answer and explanation

D: 0.0 E

For a uniform electric field, equal flux enters and leaves opposite faces of a closed cube. The signed contributions cancel, while the other faces have zero normal component. Net outward flux is zero.

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2001 · Question 33

A glass dielectric block is inserted into the air gap of a parallel-plate capacitor without changing plate area or separation. Its capacitance will

  1. Increase
  2. Decrease
  3. Decrease, then increase
  4. Remain constant
Answer and explanation

A: Increase

Glass polarizes in the electric field. For a given plate charge this reduces the potential difference, so C =Q/V increases when glass replaces air between plates at unchanged geometry.

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2001 · Question 34

Two protons in vacuum, each with charge e and mass m, are separated by distance d. Find the ratio of electric-force magnitude to gravitational-force magnitude.

  1. e/(4πε₀Gm)
  2. e²/(Gm²)
  3. Gm²/(4πε₀e²)
  4. e²/(4πε₀Gm²)
Answer and explanation

D: e²/(4πε₀Gm²)

The electric force magnitude is e²/(4πε₀d²), while gravity gives Gm²/d². Dividing cancels d², leaving F_E/F_G =e²/(4πε₀Gm²).

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2001 · Question 38

A 240 V RMS sinusoidal supply is connected across a 4 Ω resistor in series with an ideal inductor of reactance 3 Ω. Find the RMS current.

  1. 31 A
  2. 48 A
  3. 60 A
  4. 80 A
Answer and explanation

B: 48 A

The series resistance is 4 Ω and inductive reactance 3 Ω, so impedance magnitude is √(4² +3²) =5 Ω. The RMS current is 240/5 =48 A.

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2001 · Question 40

Current through a resistor is i =2 sin(ωt) A. Find the steady d.c. current that would produce the same average heating.

  1. 1/√2 A
  2. 2√2 A
  3. 2 A
  4. √2 A
Answer and explanation

D: √2 A

The d.c. heating equivalent is the RMS current. For i =2 sin(ωt) A, the peak is 2 A, so I_RMS =2/√2 =√2 A.

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2001 · Question 44

The process of energy production in the sun is

  1. Nuclear fission
  2. Nuclear fusion
  3. Electron collision
  4. Radioactive decay
Answer and explanation

B: Nuclear fusion

The Sun’s core releases energy mainly by nuclear fusion, combining hydrogen nuclei into helium. The products have slightly less total rest mass, with the difference released as energy.

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2001 · Question 46

For fixed current, length and uniform magnetic-field strength, the magnetic force on a straight conductor is greatest when it is

  1. At 60° to the field
  2. At any angle, since force is angle-independent
  3. Parallel to the field
  4. At right angles to the field
Answer and explanation

D: At right angles to the field

For a straight conductor in a uniform magnetic field, F =BIL sinθ. With B,I andL fixed, the force is largest at θ =90°, where sinθ =1.

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2000 · Question 3

In the simple model of dry sliding friction, which statements are approximately correct? I. Friction is independent of apparent contact area. II. It depends on the nature of the surfaces. III. It depends on sliding speed. IV. It is directly proportional to normal reaction.

  1. I, II and IV
  2. I, II and III
  3. I, III and IV
  4. II, III and IV
Answer and explanation

A: I, II and IV

In the simple dry-sliding-friction model, F =μN. The coefficient depends on the contacting materials; force is approximately independent of apparent area and, over the model’s range, sliding speed.

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2000 · Question 4

A ship of unchanged mass sails from salt water into less-dense fresh water and remains afloat. The fraction of its volume above the water surface will

  1. Remain the same
  2. Increase
  3. Decrease
  4. Increase then decrease.
Answer and explanation

C: Decrease

A floating ship displaces water whose weight equals its own. Fresh water is less dense than salt water, so a larger submerged volume is needed. The volume remaining above the surface decreases.

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2000 · Question 7

For a body moving at constant speed around a circle, which statements are true? I. Its velocity is constant. II. The net work done on it is zero. III. It has constant acceleration away from the centre. IV. The centripetal force points toward the centre.

  1. I and III
  2. I and IV
  3. II and III
  4. II and IV
Answer and explanation

D: II and IV

At constant speed the kinetic energy is unchanged, so the net work is zero. Velocity still changes direction, and the net centripetal force points toward the centre. Therefore II and IV are correct.

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2000 · Question 8

A particle has velocity v =10 +2 t² in m/s, with t in seconds. Find its instantaneous acceleration at t =5 s.

  1. 10 m/s²
  2. 15 m/s²
  3. 20 m/s²
  4. 60 m/s²
Answer and explanation

C: 20 m/s²

Instantaneous acceleration is the derivative of velocity: a =dv/dt =4 t. At t =5 s this is a =4 ×5 =20 m/s². The constant 10 contributes no acceleration.

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2000 · Question 9

A force acts parallel to velocity. If both force and speed are halved, with direction unchanged, the mechanical power is

  1. Doubled
  2. Constant
  3. Reduced to a quarter
  4. Reduced by half.
Answer and explanation

C: Reduced to a quarter

Mechanical power is P =Fv for force parallel to motion. Halving both quantities gives P_new =(F/2)(v/2) =P/4.

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2000 · Question 10

The velocity ratio of a machine is 5 its efficiency is 75%. What effort would be needed to lift a load of 150 N with the machine?

  1. 50 N
  2. 40 N
  3. 30 N
  4. 20 N
Answer and explanation

B: 40 N

Efficiency equals mechanical advantage divided by velocity ratio. Thus MA =0.75 ×5 =3.75, and effort =load/MA =150/3.75 =40 N.

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2000 · Question 21

In a traditional mercury-and-alcohol Six maximum-minimum thermometer, P labels the sensing reservoir, Q the liquid in the bottom U-bend, and R the liquid above Q in the opposite limb, below the expansion space. Identify P, Q and R.

  1. Alcohol, mercury and alcohol
  2. Air, alcohol and mercury
  3. Mercury, alcohol and mercury
  4. Air, mercury and alcohol.
Answer and explanation

A: Alcohol, mercury and alcohol

In the traditional mercury-and-alcohol Six thermometer, alcohol in the sensing side expands and displaces the mercury in the U-bend. The liquid above the mercury on the other side is also alcohol; the expansion space is farther up in its bulb.

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2000 · Question 29

White light passes obliquely from air into a transparent medium with normal dispersion. Three refracted rays a, b and c lie in order from closest to farthest from the normal. Which colours could a, b and c represent?

  1. Blue, yellow and red
  2. Green, red and blue
  3. Red, green and blue
  4. Yellow, blue and red
Answer and explanation

A: Blue, yellow and red

In a normally dispersive medium, blue light has a higher refractive index than yellow or red, so it bends closest to the normal. Yellow is intermediate and red is farthest from the normal.

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2000 · Question 30

Capacitors P =5 μF and Q =10 μF are connected in parallel across a 20 V d.c. source. Find their stored charge magnitudes, P then Q.

  1. 200 μC and 100 μC
  2. 100 μC and 200 μC
  3. 4 μC and 2 μC
  4. 2 μC and 4 μC
Answer and explanation

B: 100 μC and 200 μC

Parallel capacitors each have the full 20 V. Using Q =CV gives Q_P =5 ×20 =100 μC and Q_Q =10 ×20 =200 μC.

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2000 · Question 31

Which basic two-lens instrument is best constructed using only converging lenses of focal lengths 500 cm and 5 cm?

  1. Compound microscope
  2. Terrestrial telescope
  3. Astronomical telescope
  4. Galileo’s telescope
Answer and explanation

C: Astronomical telescope

A refracting astronomical telescope uses a long-focal-length converging objective and a short-focal-length converging eyepiece. The 500 cm and 5 cm lenses fit that arrangement.

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2000 · Question 33

A cell of emf 2 V and internal resistance 1 Ω supplies 3 Ω and 2 Ω resistors in series. Ideal voltmeters V₁ and V₂ measure across the 3 Ω and 2 Ω resistors respectively. Find their readings.

  1. 1 V and 1/3 V
  2. 1/3 V and 1 V
  3. 1/3 V and 2/3 V
  4. 1 V and 2/3 V
Answer and explanation

D: 1 V and 2/3 V

Total resistance is 3 +2 +1 =6 Ω including the cell. Current is 2/6 =1/3 A, giving V₁ =(1/3) ×3 =1 V and V₂ =(1/3) ×2 =2/3 V.

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2000 · Question 36

An ideal 2 H inductor is connected to a sinusoidal supply of frequency 50/π Hz. Find its reactance.

  1. 200 Ω
  2. 50 Ω
  3. 100/π Ω
  4. 25/π Ω
Answer and explanation

A: 200 Ω

Inductive reactance is X_L =2πfL. With f =50/π Hz and L =2 H, X_L =2π ×(50/π) ×2 =200 Ω.

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2000 · Question 37

A radioactive sample has 1/64 of its original undecayed atoms remaining after 120 years. Find its half-life.

  1. 2 years
  2. 10 years
  3. 20 years
  4. 24 years
Answer and explanation

C: 20 years

The remaining fraction 1/64 equals(1/2)⁶, so six half-lives have elapsed. The half-life is 120/6 =20 years.

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2000 · Question 39

In a pure intrinsic semiconductor in thermal equilibrium, the number of conduction-band electrons is

  1. Equal to the number of holes in the valence band
  2. Greater than the number of holes in the valence band
  3. Less than the number of holes in the valence band
  4. Twice the number of holes in the valence band.
Answer and explanation

A: Equal to the number of holes in the valence band

In an intrinsic semiconductor, thermal excitation of one valence electron into the conduction band leaves one hole behind. Thus conduction-electron and valence-hole populations are equal.

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2000 · Question 41

Photons of energy 5 eV strike a metal with work function 3 eV. Find the stopping potential magnitude.

  1. 15.0 V
  2. 8.0 V
  3. 2.0 V
  4. 1.7 V
Answer and explanation

C: 2.0 V

The maximum photoelectron energy is photon energy minus work function:5 −3 =2 eV. A stopping potential of 2 V removes 2 eV from an electron, bringing the fastest electrons to rest.

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2000 · Question 43

A 200-turn coil has the magnetic flux through each turn changing at 0.08 Wb/s. Find the induced emf magnitude.

  1. 1.6 V
  2. 16.0 V
  3. 25.0 V
  4. 250.0 V
Answer and explanation

B: 16.0 V

Faraday’s law gives emf magnitude N|dΦ/dt|. With 200 turns and a flux change of 0.08 Wb/s through each turn, the induced emf is 200 ×0.08 =16 V.

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2000 · Question 45

In a basic mains-device wiring diagram, P is in the live lead, Q in the neutral lead and S in the protective-earth lead. Which marked position is appropriate for the series fuse?

  1. S
  2. Q
  3. P
  4. Between P and Q
Answer and explanation

C: P

The fuse belongs in series with the live conductor. If it opens, it disconnects the device from the live supply. A fuse in the neutral can leave the device live, while the protective earth must remain continuous.

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2000 · Question 49

A generator delivers 3.0 kW at its 1.5 kV output terminals through cables whose total resistance is 20 Ω. Find the resistive power loss in those cables.

  1. 0.1 W
  2. 10.0 W
  3. 40.0 W
  4. 80.0 W
Answer and explanation

D: 80.0 W

The line current is I =P/V =3000/1500 =2 A. The total cable loss is I²R =2² ×20 =80 W.

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1999 · Question 5

A rigid solid with base PQ rests on a slope, with enough friction to prevent sliding and no external support. G is its centre of gravity. Which statement describes when gravity makes it tip?

  1. It tips if the vertical line through G falls outside its base of support
  2. It tips if the vertical line through G lies inside its base
  3. It does not tip if the vertical line through G lies outside its base
  4. It can never tip
Answer and explanation

A: It tips if the vertical line through G falls outside its base of support

If the vertical line of weight falls outside the base, gravity produces a turning moment about the downhill edge that tips the solid. Inside the base, a supporting reaction can balance its weight.

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1999 · Question 6

Two bodies have masses in the ratio 3:1 and accelerations in the ratio 2:9, respectively. Find the ratio of the resultant forces acting on them.

  1. 1 : 4
  2. 2 : 1
  3. 2 : 3
  4. 2 : 5.
Answer and explanation

C: 2 : 3

Newton’s second law gives F₁/F₂ =(m₁/m₂)(a₁/a₂) =3 ×2/9 =2/3. The forces therefore have ratio 2:3.

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1999 · Question 7

A vehicle’s velocity-time graph consists of straight segments joining (0 s,0 m/s), (20 s,80 m/s), (50 s,80 m/s) and (90 s,0 m/s). Find its acceleration during the first segment and retardation magnitude during the last.

  1. 8 m/s², 4 m/s²
  2. 4 m/s², 8 m/s²
  3. 4 m/s², 2 m/s²
  4. 2 m/s², 4 m/s²
Answer and explanation

C: 4 m/s², 2 m/s²

The rising slope is (80 −0)/(20 −0) =4 m/s². The falling slope is (0 −80)/(90 −50) =−2 m/s², so the retardation magnitude is 2 m/s².

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1999 · Question 9

The inner diameter of a small test tube can be measured accurately using a

  1. Ordinary outside micrometer screw gauge
  2. Pair of dividers
  3. Metre rule
  4. Vernier calipers with inside jaws
Answer and explanation

D: Vernier calipers with inside jaws

The inside jaws of vernier calipers can contact opposite inner walls of the tube and measure the separation directly. An ordinary outside micrometer cannot measure that internal diameter.

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1999 · Question 12

A lift pump has valve P in its moving piston and inlet valve Q at the bottom of the cylinder. Both admit upward flow. During the downward stroke of the piston, which valves are open?

  1. Both valves are open
  2. P is open while Q is closed
  3. P is closed while Q is open
  4. Both valves are closed.
Answer and explanation

B: P is open while Q is closed

On the downstroke, water pressure below the piston closes the inlet valve Q and opens the piston valve P. Water passes upward through the piston instead of returning down the inlet.

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1999 · Question 14

Within the elastic range, a wire under stress 10⁷ Pa stretches from 10.00 cm to 10.05 cm. Find its Young’s modulus.

  1. 5.0 ×10⁴ Pa
  2. 5.0 ×10⁵ Pa
  3. 2.0 ×10⁸ Pa
  4. 2.0 ×10⁹ Pa
Answer and explanation

D: 2.0 ×10⁹ Pa

The strain is (10.05 −10.00)/10.00 =0.005. Young’s modulus is stress divided by strain: E =10⁷/0.005 =2.0 ×10⁹ Pa.

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1999 · Question 16

For boiling and a dilute aqueous solution with a nonvolatile solute, which statements are correct? I. A liquid boils when its saturated vapour pressure equals external pressure. II. Dissolving the solute raises water’s boiling point. III. Increasing external pressure raises the boiling point. IV. Dissolving the solute lowers water’s boiling point.

  1. I, II and III
  2. I, II, III and IV
  3. I, II and IV
  4. II, III and IV.
Answer and explanation

A: I, II and III

Boiling occurs when saturated vapour pressure reaches the external pressure. Raising external pressure raises boiling temperature. A nonvolatile solute lowers solvent vapour pressure and raises the solution’s boiling point.

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1999 · Question 17

As the temperature of a pure liquid such as water rises while it remains liquid, its surface tension generally

  1. Decreases
  2. Increases
  3. Remains constant
  4. Increase then decreases.
Answer and explanation

A: Decreases

For a pure liquid such as water, surface tension generally decreases as temperature rises. Greater thermal motion reduces the free-energy cost per unit area of forming its liquid surface.

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1999 · Question 21

A sound wave passes from colder air into hotter air of the same composition across a stationary boundary. Its wavelength

  1. Increases
  2. Decreases
  3. Decreases then increases
  4. Remains constant
Answer and explanation

A: Increases

Sound travels faster in hotter air of the same composition. Its frequency remains fixed by the source across a stationary boundary, so λ =v/f increases when the speed increases.

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1999 · Question 23

A wave is described in SI units by y =0.25 ×10⁻³ sin(500 t −0.025 x). Find its angular frequency.

  1. 0.25 ×10⁻³ rad/s
  2. 0.25 ×10⁻¹ rad/s
  3. 5.00 ×10² rad/s
  4. 2.50 ×10² rad/s
Answer and explanation

C: 5.00 ×10² rad/s

Compare y =A sin(ωt −kx) with the given equation. The coefficient of time in the phase is the angular frequency, so ω =500 rad/s =5.00 ×10² rad/s.

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1999 · Question 24

A 2 kg copper block at 100°C is placed on ice at 0°C without heat loss. Find the mass of ice melted. Take copper’s specific heat capacity as 400 J/(kg·K) and ice’s latent heat of fusion as 3.3 ×10⁵ J/kg.

  1. 8/33 kg
  2. 33/80 kg
  3. 80/33 kg
  4. 33/8 kg
Answer and explanation

A: 8/33 kg

The copper releases Q =mcΔT =2 ×400 ×100 =80,000 J while cooling to 0°C. Melting needs mᵢL =Q, so mᵢ =80,000/330,000 =8/33 kg.

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1999 · Question 25

A spatial snapshot of a transverse electromagnetic wave contains three complete cycles over 0.30 m, from an upward zero crossing to the third following upward zero crossing. Its speed is 3.0 ×10⁸ m/s. Find its frequency.

  1. 3.0 ×10⁷ Hz
  2. 90 ×10⁷ Hz
  3. 1.0 ×10⁹ Hz
  4. 3.0 ×10⁹ Hz
Answer and explanation

D: 3.0 ×10⁹ Hz

Three complete cycles occupy 0.30 m, so the wavelength is 0.30/3 =0.10 m. Hence f =v/λ =(3.0 ×10⁸)/0.10 =3.0 ×10⁹ Hz.

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1999 · Question 27

The ends of a 0.02 m length of copper are maintained at 20°C and 80°C. Find the magnitude of the temperature gradient.

  1. 3.0 ×10² K/m
  2. 3.0 ×10³ K/m
  3. 5.0 ×10³ K/m
  4. 3.0 ×10⁴ K/m
Answer and explanation

B: 3.0 ×10³ K/m

The temperature difference is 80 −20 =60 K. The magnitude of the gradient is ΔT/Δx =60/0.02 =3000 K/m =3.0 ×10³ K/m.

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1999 · Question 29

Four identical cells, each of emf 1.5 V and internal resistance 4 Ω, are connected in parallel with matching polarities. Find the effective emf and internal resistance.

  1. 6.0 V, 16 Ω
  2. 6.0 V, 1 Ω
  3. 1.5 V, 4 Ω
  4. 1.5 V, 1 Ω
Answer and explanation

D: 1.5 V, 1 Ω

Identical cells connected in parallel with matching polarities retain the emf of one cell, 1.5 V. Their internal resistances act in parallel, giving r =4/4 =1 Ω.

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1999 · Question 31

An astronomical telescope is said to be in normal adjustment when the

  1. Eye is accommodated
  2. Focal length of objective lens is longer than that of eye piece
  3. Final image is at the near point of eye
  4. Final image is at infinity.
Answer and explanation

D: Final image is at infinity.

Normal adjustment places the intermediate image at the eyepiece’s focal plane, so rays from each image point emerge parallel. The final image is therefore at infinity and a relaxed eye can view it.

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1999 · Question 32

Hardened steel is more suitable than soft iron for a permanent magnet because it

  1. Is easily demagnetized by vigorous shaking
  2. Is an alloy of many metals
  3. Is easily magnetized by alternating current through one cycle
  4. Retains magnetism more strongly
Answer and explanation

D: Retains magnetism more strongly

Hardened steel retains substantial magnetization after the magnetizing field is removed and resists demagnetization. Soft iron is easier to magnetize and demagnetize, making it better suited to temporary magnetic cores.

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1999 · Question 33

Two right-angle prisms are vertically separated. Light travels horizontally into the upper prism, turns 90° downward, then turns 90° in the lower prism and emerges horizontally in its original direction at a lower level. This is the basic prism arrangement in a

  1. Binocular
  2. Spectrometer
  3. Periscope
  4. Projector
Answer and explanation

C: Periscope

Two right-angle prisms can reflect a light path down from a higher viewing point and then horizontally to a lower observer. This displaced viewing path is the basic arrangement of a prism periscope.

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1999 · Question 34

Light travels from air into glass. Its speeds are 3.0 ×10⁸ m/s in air and 2.0 ×10⁸ m/s in glass. If the angle of refraction is 30°, find the sine of the angle of incidence.

  1. 0.33
  2. 0.50
  3. 0.67
  4. 0.75
Answer and explanation

D: 0.75

Snell’s law gives sin i/sin r =v_air/v_glass =3/2. With r =30° and sin 30° =0.5, sin i =(3/2) ×0.5 =0.75.

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1999 · Question 35

A sinusoidal source supplies one series loop containing an ideal inductor L and a resistor R. Their RMS voltages are V_L =8 V and V_R =6 V. Find the source RMS voltage.

  1. 2 V
  2. 10 V
  3. 14 V
  4. 48 V
Answer and explanation

B: 10 V

Resistor voltage is in phase with current, while ideal-inductor voltage leads current by 90°. The supply RMS voltage is their phasor sum: √(6² +8²) =10 V.

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1999 · Question 36

A transformer core is made from thin insulated metal laminations mainly to

  1. Increase the heat produced by increasing the eddy current
  2. Increase the heat produced by reducing the eddy current
  3. Reduce the heat produced by increasing the eddy current
  4. Reduce the heat produced by reducing the eddy current.
Answer and explanation

D: Reduce the heat produced by reducing the eddy current.

Insulated laminations interrupt large circulating paths in the metal core. This reduces eddy currents and their resistive heating, improving transformer efficiency.

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1999 · Question 37

In Fleming’s right-hand rule, the thumb, the forefinger and the middle finger if held mutually at right angles represent respectively, the

  1. Motion, magnetic field and induced current
  2. Induced current, motion and magnetic field
  3. Magnetic field, induced current and motion
  4. Induced current, magnetic field and motion
Answer and explanation

A: Motion, magnetic field and induced current

For Fleming’s generator right-hand rule, the thumb indicates conductor motion, the first finger the magnetic field, and the second finger the induced conventional current. The three directions are mutually perpendicular.

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1999 · Question 38

A 2 μF capacitor and a 3 μF capacitor are connected in parallel across 100 V, with their marked positive plates at the same terminal. Find their total stored energy.

  1. 3.0 ×10⁴ J
  2. 3.0 ×10² J
  3. 2.5 ×10⁻² J
  4. 6.0 ×10⁻³ J
Answer and explanation

C: 2.5 ×10⁻² J

Both parallel capacitors have 100 V across them. Their total stored energy is ½(C₁ +C₂)V² =½(2 +3) ×10⁻⁶ ×100² =0.025 J.

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1999 · Question 39

At what frequency would a 10 H inductor have a reactance of 2000 ohms?

  1. π/200 Hz
  2. π/100 Hz
  3. 100/π Hz
  4. 100π Hz
Answer and explanation

C: 100/π Hz

Inductive reactance is X_L =2πfL. Rearranging gives f =2000/(2π ×10) =100/π Hz, approximately 31.8 Hz.

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1999 · Question 42

Two resistors R₁ and R₂ are connected in separate parallel branches across a cell of emf E and zero internal resistance. If their powers are P₁ and P₂, respectively, find P₁/P₂.

  1. R₂/R₁
  2. R₁/R₂
  3. (R₁ + R₂)/R₁
  4. (R₁ + R₂)/R₂
Answer and explanation

A: R₂/R₁

The resistors are in parallel, so each has the cell voltage E across it. Since P =V²/R, the ratio is P₁/P₂ =(E²/R₁)/(E²/R₂) =R₂/R₁.

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1999 · Question 46

In an ordinary crystalline semiconductor at room temperature, the mobile carriers of electric current are

  1. Electrons only
  2. Electrons and holes
  3. Holes only
  4. Electrons and ions
Answer and explanation

B: Electrons and holes

Conduction-band electrons and mobile holes in the valence band both carry current in ordinary semiconductors. A hole represents a missing valence electron and behaves as a positive charge carrier.

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1999 · Question 47

Find the speed of a particle with mass 10⁻²⁷ kg and de Broglie wavelength 10⁻⁸ m. Use h =6.63 ×10⁻³⁴ J·s.

  1. 6.63 m/s
  2. 66.30 m/s
  3. 663.00 m/s
  4. 6630.00 m/s
Answer and explanation

B: 66.30 m/s

De Broglie’s relation is λ =h/p. At this low speed p =mv, so v =h/(mλ) =(6.63 ×10⁻³⁴)/(10⁻²⁷ ×10⁻⁸) =66.3 m/s.

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1999 · Question 48

In a series circuit containing R and ideal L and C at resonance, the RMS voltages across R and L are 30 V and 40 V. What is the RMS voltage across C?

  1. 30 V
  2. 40 V
  3. 50 V
  4. 70 V
Answer and explanation

B: 40 V

At series resonance, X_L =X_C. The same current passes through both components, so their voltage magnitudes are equal and opposite in phase. Thus the capacitor voltage is 40 V.

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1999 · Question 49

In nuclear gamma emission, the radiation is produced when

  1. Fast electrons are abruptly stopped in a metal
  2. An excited nucleus changes to a lower energy state
  3. Electrons change energy levels within an atom
  4. Electrons are deflected by a strong magnetic field
Answer and explanation

B: An excited nucleus changes to a lower energy state

In nuclear gamma emission, an excited nucleus changes to a lower energy state and releases the energy difference as a photon. This is distinct from transitions among atomic electron energy levels.

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1998 · Question 1

The physical quantity that has the same dimensions as impulse is

  1. Energy
  2. Momentum
  3. Surface tension
  4. Pressure.
Answer and explanation

B: Momentum

Impulse is force multiplied by time, with dimensions MLT⁻² ×T =MLT⁻¹. Momentum is mass multiplied by velocity and has the same dimensions.

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1998 · Question 6

Two point masses attract with force 10⁻⁴ N at separation 0.18 m. Find the force when their separation is 0.06 m.

  1. 1.1 ×10⁻⁵ N
  2. 3.3 ×10⁻⁵ N
  3. 3.0 ×10⁻⁴ N
  4. 9.0 ×10⁻⁴ N
Answer and explanation

D: 9.0 ×10⁻⁴ N

Gravitational force varies inversely with separation squared. Reducing distance from 0.18 m to 0.06 m multiplies the force by(0.18/0.06)² =9, giving 9.0 ×10⁻⁴ N.

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1998 · Question 7

A fixed net force F is applied to different masses. Which graphs correctly show acceleration a? I. a versus m: straight increasing line through the origin. II. a versus 1/m: straight decreasing line. III. a versus 1/m: straight increasing line through the origin. IV. a versus m: decreasing inverse curve.

  1. III and IV only
  2. II and IV only
  3. I and III only
  4. I and II only
Answer and explanation

A: III and IV only

For fixed force, a =F/m. Thus a plotted against m is a decreasing inverse curve, while a plotted against 1/m is a straight increasing line through the origin.

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1998 · Question 12

In a wheel and axle mechanism, the diameters of the wheel and axle are 40 cm and 8 cm respectively. Given that the machine is 80% efficient, what effort is required to lift a load of 100 N?

  1. 20 N
  2. 25 N
  3. 50 N
  4. 80 N
Answer and explanation

B: 25 N

Velocity ratio is wheel diameter divided by axle diameter:40/8 =5. Efficiency equals mechanical advantage divided by velocity ratio, so MA =0.8 ×5 =4. Effort is 100/4 =25 N.

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1998 · Question 13

A tendon of original length 0.01 m extends by 2.0 ×10⁻⁵ m under a 5 N force. Find its longitudinal strain.

  1. 5 ×10⁶
  2. 5 ×10²
  3. 2 ×10⁻³
  4. 2 ×10⁻⁷
Answer and explanation

C: 2 ×10⁻³

Strain is extension divided by original length. Thus strain =(2.0 ×10⁻⁵)/0.01 =2.0 ×10⁻³. It has no unit because both lengths use metres.

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1998 · Question 14

For uniform liquids at rest, consider pressure measured above each liquid’s free-surface pressure. Which statements are correct? I. Pressure acts equally in all directions at a point. II. Pressure increases with depth. III. Pressure at a given depth depends on container shape. IV. At equal depths, pressure rises are proportional to liquid density.

  1. I, II and III only
  2. I, II and IV only
  3. I, III and IV only
  4. II, III and IV only
Answer and explanation

B: I, II and IV only

For static liquids, pressure at a point is isotropic. The pressure rise below a free surface isρgh: it increases with depth, is proportional to density at a fixed depth, and does not depend on container shape.

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1998 · Question 15

Water has surface pressure 1.3 ×10⁶ Pa. Find the total pressure 10 m below the surface, using density 1000 kg/m³ and g =10 m/s².

  1. 1.3 ×10⁷ Pa
  2. 1.4 ×10⁶ Pa
  3. 1.4 ×10⁵ Pa
  4. 1.0 ×10⁵ Pa
Answer and explanation

B: 1.4 ×10⁶ Pa

The water addsρgh =1000 ×10 ×10 =100000 Pa. Adding the specified surface pressure gives 1.3 ×10⁶ +0.1 ×10⁶ =1.4 ×10⁶ Pa.

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1998 · Question 18

Brass has linear expansivity 2 ×10⁻⁵ °C⁻¹ and volume 15.00 cm³ at 0 °C. Use the first-order isotropic expansion approximation to find its volume at 100 °C.

  1. 16.03 cm³
  2. 16.00 cm³
  3. 15.09 cm³
  4. 15.03 cm³
Answer and explanation

C: 15.09 cm³

For small isotropic expansion, volume expansivity is 3α. Thus V =15.00[1 +3(2 ×10⁻⁵)(100)] =15.00(1.006) =15.09 cm³.

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1998 · Question 21

What minimum mass of water at 17 °C melts 42 g of ice initially at 0 °C? Neglect heat loss and container heat capacity. Use L =3.4 ×10⁵ J/kg and cwater =4200 J/(kg·K).

  1. 200 g
  2. 300 g
  3. 320 g
  4. 400 g
Answer and explanation

A: 200 g

Melting the ice requires 0.042 ×3.4 ×10⁵ =14280 J. Water cooling from 17 °C to 0 °C supplies 71400 J per kilogram, so the minimum mass is 14280/71400 =0.200 kg =200 g.

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1998 · Question 23

Which is an assumption of the elementary kinetic theory for a pure ideal gas?

  1. Molecules move constantly and their collision rate can never change
  2. Molecule number must increase whenever pressure increases
  3. Collision rate remains fixed as temperature increases
  4. Molecules are identical and very small compared with their separation
Answer and explanation

D: Molecules are identical and very small compared with their separation

In the elementary kinetic model of a pure ideal gas, particles are identical and their individual size is negligible compared with their separation. Their collision rate can change with temperature and density.

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1998 · Question 24

Which pair describes behaviours of ordinary longitudinal sound waves in air?

  1. Reflection and diffraction
  2. Polarization and reflection
  3. Polarization and diffraction
  4. Polarization and refraction
Answer and explanation

A: Reflection and diffraction

Ordinary sound in air is longitudinal. It reflects from boundaries and diffracts around obstacles, but it cannot be polarized like a transverse wave.

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1998 · Question 25

Sound travels at 360 m/s in a gas at 27 °C. With unchanged gas composition and heat-capacity ratio, find its speed at 127 °C. Use K = °C +273.

  1. 120√3 m/s
  2. 240 m/s
  3. 240√3 m/s
  4. 720√3 m/s
Answer and explanation

C: 240√3 m/s

For the same ideal gas, sound speed is proportional to√T. The kelvin temperatures are 300 and 400, so v₂ =360√(400/300) =240√3 m/s.

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1998 · Question 26

In an ideal organ pipe closed at one end, neglect end correction. An air-displacement antinode occurs at

  1. The closed end
  2. The open end
  3. The middle
  4. All the parts of the pipe.
Answer and explanation

B: The open end

At the open end, air can move most freely, giving a displacement antinode. The closed end prevents air movement and is a displacement node; pressure nodes and antinodes are reversed.

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1998 · Question 29

A real object is between a concave mirror and its principal focus. Which description applies to its image?

  1. Virtual and diminished
  2. Magnified and erect
  3. Real and inverted
  4. Diminished and erect.
Answer and explanation

B: Magnified and erect

An object between a concave mirror and its focus forms an upright virtual image behind the mirror. The image is larger than the object.

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1998 · Question 31

Which specific mirror shape is most suitable for collimating light from a small source into a narrow searchlight beam?

  1. Concave mirror
  2. Convex mirror
  3. Spherical mirror
  4. Parabolic mirror.
Answer and explanation

D: Parabolic mirror.

A paraboloid sends rays from a small source at its focus into parallel rays, avoiding the spherical aberration of a spherical reflector. This makes the parabolic shape suitable for a narrow searchlight beam.

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1998 · Question 32

An object touches the bottom of a glass block of thickness t and refractive index n>1. Viewed nearly normally from air through the top face, its apparent upward shift d is

  1. t − n
  2. t(1 + 1/n)
  3. t(1 − 1/n)
  4. t(1/n − 1)
Answer and explanation

C: t(1 − 1/n)

Near normal viewing through glass gives apparent depth t/n. The apparent upward shift is actual depth minus apparent depth: d =t −t/n =t(1 −1/n).

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1998 · Question 35

Which statements describe infrared radiation? I. It is invisible to the human eye. II. It is commonly called heat radiation. III. Its frequency is higher than blue light. IV. In free space it is transverse.

  1. I, II, III and IV
  2. I, II and IV only
  3. I, III and IV only
  4. II, III and IV only
Answer and explanation

B: I, II and IV only

Infrared is outside human visible wavelengths and is commonly associated with thermal radiation. It is a transverse electromagnetic wave, with lower frequency than blue light.

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1998 · Question 36

In vacuum, point charges +5 μC and +8 μC are 0.02 m apart. Find their repulsive force using k =9 ×10⁹ N·m²/C².

  1. 1.8 ×10⁻¹⁰ N
  2. 9.0 ×10⁻⁸ N
  3. 9.0 ×10² N
  4. 4.5 ×10³ N
Answer and explanation

C: 9.0 ×10² N

Coulomb’s law gives F =kq₁q₂/r². Thus F =(9 ×10⁹)(5 ×10⁻⁶)(8 ×10⁻⁶)/(0.02)² =900 N. Both charges are positive, so the force is repulsive.

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1998 · Question 37

In the standard dry electrostatic experiment, an ebonite rod rubbed with fur attracts a glass rod rubbed with silk because

  1. Ebonite has a negative charge while glass has a positive charge
  2. Ebonite has a positive charge while glass has a negative charge
  3. Both have negative charges
  4. Both have positive charges.
Answer and explanation

A: Ebonite has a negative charge while glass has a positive charge

In the usual dry charging experiment, ebonite gains electrons from fur and becomes negative; glass loses electrons to silk and becomes positive. Opposite charges attract.

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1998 · Question 40

Terminal P connects through 1 Ω to node A, and terminal Q through 1 Ω to node B. Between A and B are two parallel paths: one 3 Ω resistor, and three 2 Ω resistors in series. Find the resistance between P and Q.

  1. 18.0 Ω
  2. 11.0 Ω
  3. 4.0 Ω
  4. 2.0 Ω
Answer and explanation

C: 4.0 Ω

The three 2 Ω resistors make a 6 Ω series path. This is in parallel with 3 Ω, giving 2 Ω. The two 1 Ω lead resistors are in series with it, so total resistance is 1 +2 +1 =4 Ω.

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1998 · Question 41

Find the external work required to move a +2 C charge slowly from X to Y when Y is 100 V above X.

  1. 50 J
  2. 100 J
  3. 200 J
  4. 400 J
Answer and explanation

C: 200 J

Work needed per charge is the potential rise. Moving 2 C through 100 V requires W =qΔV =2 ×100 =200 J.

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1998 · Question 43

An induction-coil iron core is subdivided into bundles of electrically insulated wires mainly to

  1. Minimize eddy-currents
  2. Generate eddy-currents
  3. Prevent sparking at the contact breaker
  4. Get the greatest possible secondary voltage.
Answer and explanation

A: Minimize eddy-currents

Separate insulated iron wires interrupt large circulating current paths in the core. This reduces eddy currents and the heating losses they would cause as magnetic flux changes.

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1998 · Question 44

A supply cable has total resistance 0.5 Ω. Its maximum RMS current is 100 A. Find the maximum heat dissipated in one hour if that current is maintained.

  1. 3.6 ×10³ J
  2. 5.0 ×10³ J
  3. 3.0 ×10⁵ J
  4. 1.8 ×10⁷ J
Answer and explanation

D: 1.8 ×10⁷ J

At 100 A, cable heating power is I²R =100² ×0.5 =5000 W. Sustaining this for 3600 s gives energy 5000 ×3600 =1.8 ×10⁷ J.

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1998 · Question 45

A sinusoidal source supplies a series circuit containing a 15 Ω resistor, 5 μF capacitor and 8 mH ideal inductor. Find the current-resonance frequency.

  1. 5000π Hz
  2. 2500π Hz
  3. 5000/π Hz
  4. 2500/π Hz
Answer and explanation

D: 2500/π Hz

In a series RLC circuit, current resonance occurs when ωL =1/(ωC). Here LC =(8 ×10⁻³)(5 ×10⁻⁶) =4 ×10⁻⁸, so f =1/(2π√LC) =2500/π Hz.

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1998 · Question 47

A metal has electrochemical equivalent 1.3 ×10⁻⁷ kg/C. What mass is deposited by 2.0 ×10⁴ C through a suitable electrolyte?

  1. 6.5 ×10⁻² kg
  2. 2.6 ×10⁻² kg
  3. 6.5 ×10⁻³ kg
  4. 2.6 ×10⁻³ kg
Answer and explanation

D: 2.6 ×10⁻³ kg

Deposited mass equals electrochemical equivalent multiplied by charge: m =zQ =(1.3 ×10⁻⁷)(2.0 ×10⁴) =2.6 ×10⁻³ kg.

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1998 · Question 49

A fusion reaction has a decrease in total rest mass of 1.0 ×10⁻⁶ kg. Find the released energy using c =3.0 ×10⁸ m/s.

  1. 3.0 ×10⁻⁴ J
  2. 3.0 ×10⁻¹ J
  3. 9.0 ×10⁴ J
  4. 9.0 ×10¹⁰ J
Answer and explanation

D: 9.0 ×10¹⁰ J

Released energy is the decrease in rest mass multiplied by c². Thus E =10⁻⁶(3 ×10⁸)² =9 ×10¹⁰ J.

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1997 · Question 1

For force with dimensions MˣLʸTᶻ, what are x, y and z respectively?

  1. −1, 1, 2
  2. 1, 1, −2
  3. 1, −1, 2
  4. −1, 1, −2
Answer and explanation

B: 1, 1, −2

Force equals mass times acceleration. Mass contributes M and acceleration LT⁻², so force has dimensions M¹L¹T⁻². The exponents are 1,1,−2.

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1997 · Question 2

A particle’s position is x =10 +12 t² metres, with time t in seconds. Find its average speed from t =2 s to t =5 s.

  1. 60 m/s
  2. 72 m/s
  3. 84 m/s
  4. 108 m/s
Answer and explanation

C: 84 m/s

At 2 s, x =10 +12(2²) =58 m; at 5 s, x =310 m. Position increases throughout, so distance travelled is 252 m and average speed is 252/3 =84 m/s.

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1997 · Question 3

A 5 kg block is released on a smooth plane inclined at 30° to horizontal. Find its downslope acceleration using g =10 m/s².

  1. 5.0 m/s²
  2. 5.8 m/s²
  3. 8.7 m/s²
  4. 25.0 m/s²
Answer and explanation

A: 5.0 m/s²

The downslope component of weight is mg sin 30°. Dividing by the mass gives acceleration g sin 30° =10 ×0.5 =5.0 m/s².

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1997 · Question 4

An arrow of mass 0.1 kg travelling horizontally at 15 m/s embeds in a stationary 0.4 kg block on a smooth horizontal surface. Find their common speed.

  1. 15.0 m/s
  2. 7.5 m/s
  3. 3.8 m/s
  4. 3.0 m/s
Answer and explanation

D: 3.0 m/s

Horizontal momentum is conserved as the arrow embeds in the block. Thus 0.1 ×15 =(0.1 +0.4)v, giving v =1.5/0.5 =3.0 m/s.

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1997 · Question 6

For a body in simple harmonic motion, which quantities are in phase?

  1. Displacement and velocity
  2. Displacement and net restoring force
  3. Velocity and acceleration
  4. Net force and acceleration
Answer and explanation

D: Net force and acceleration

For a fixed mass, net force F =ma. Force and acceleration therefore have the same sign and reach their extrema together. In SHM, displacement is opposite in phase to acceleration, while velocity differs by a quarter cycle.

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1997 · Question 9

Three forces act on a particle at rest: 6 N vertically downward, 6√3 N horizontally right, and 12 N upward-left along a cord. The cord makes angle θ with the vertical. Find θ.

  1. 15°
  2. 30°
  3. 45°
  4. 60°
Answer and explanation

D: 60°

Vertical equilibrium requires the upward component 12 cosθ to equal 6 N. Thus cosθ =1/2 and θ =60°. The horizontal component is 12 sin 60° =6√3 N, matching the rightward force.

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1997 · Question 10

A block of mass m slides down a rough plane inclined at θ to horizontal, with no other applied forces. Which force component and force act along the plane?

  1. mg sinθ and normal reaction
  2. mg sinθ and friction
  3. mg cosθ and normal reaction
  4. mg cosθ and friction
Answer and explanation

B: mg sinθ and friction

Weight resolves into mg sinθ down the slope and mg cosθ perpendicular to it. Friction acts up the slope against sliding; the normal reaction is perpendicular, so it contributes no force along the plane.

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1997 · Question 12

A 100 g object projected upward has speed 20 m/s at height 10 m. Neglect air resistance and use g =10 m/s². Find its initial kinetic energy at ground level.

  1. 10 J
  2. 20 J
  3. 30 J
  4. 50 J
Answer and explanation

C: 30 J

At 10 m height, kinetic energy is½ ×0.1 ×20² =20 J and gained potential energy is 0.1 ×10 ×10 =10 J. Initial kinetic energy is their sum,30 J.

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1997 · Question 13

A water pump draws 1.5 kW of electrical power while lifting 200 kg of water through 6 m in 10 s. Use g =10 m/s². Find its efficiency.

  1. 90.0%
  2. 85.0%
  3. 80.0%
  4. 65.0%
Answer and explanation

C: 80.0%

Useful output energy is mgh =200 ×10 ×6 =12000 J. Electrical input is 1500 ×10 =15000 J. Efficiency is 12000/15000 ×100% =80%.

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1997 · Question 14

A block of weight W rests on a rough plane inclined at θ to horizontal. When it is just about to slide under its weight, which relation holds?

  1. tanθ = coefficient of static friction
  2. cosθ = coefficient of dynamic friction
  3. sinθ = coefficient of sliding friction
  4. secθ = limiting frictional force
Answer and explanation

A: tanθ = coefficient of static friction

At the point of slipping, downslope weight W sinθ equals limiting friction μₛW cosθ. Dividing by W cosθ gives tanθ =μₛ.

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1997 · Question 19

An empty 60 litre tank has mass 10 kg. Find its mass when full of fuel of relative density 0.72. Use water density 1000 kg/m³.

  1. 7.2 kg
  2. 33.2 kg
  3. 43.2 kg
  4. 53.2 kg
Answer and explanation

D: 53.2 kg

The fuel volume is 60 L =0.060 m³. Its density is 0.72 ×1000 =720 kg/m³, so fuel mass is 43.2 kg. Adding the 10 kg empty tank gives 53.2 kg.

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1997 · Question 20

A mercury thermometer’s thread lengths at 0 °C, 100 °C and an unknown temperature are 25 mm, 225 mm and 175 mm respectively. Assuming linear calibration, find the unknown temperature.

  1. 85.0 °C
  2. 80.0 °C
  3. 75.0 °C
  4. 70.0 °C
Answer and explanation

C: 75.0 °C

The 100 °C interval corresponds to 225 −25 =200 mm. A 175 mm reading is 150 mm above zero, so temperature is 150/200 ×100 =75.0 °C.

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1997 · Question 22

A fixed amount of ideal gas in a tyre has absolute pressure 3 ×10⁵ Pa at 27 °C. At constant volume its absolute pressure rises to 4 ×10⁵ Pa. Find the final Celsius temperature, using K = °C +273.

  1. 400 °C
  2. 300 °C
  3. 273 °C
  4. 127 °C
Answer and explanation

D: 127 °C

At fixed volume, absolute pressure is proportional to absolute temperature. Initially T =27 +273 =300 K. The final temperature is 300 ×4/3 =400 K, or 127 °C.

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1997 · Question 25

At ordinary atmospheric pressure, a fixed mass of pure ice melts completely to water at 0 °C. Which description is correct?

  1. Latent heat is absorbed, the mass remains constant and the volume decreases.
  2. Latent heat is given out, the mass remains constant and the volume decreases.
  3. Latent heat is given out, the mass increases and the volume remains constant.
  4. Latent heat is absorbed, the mass decreases and the volume increases.
Answer and explanation

A: Latent heat is absorbed, the mass remains constant and the volume decreases.

Melting ice absorbs latent heat while conserving its mass. Ordinary ice is less dense than liquid water near 0 °C, so the same mass occupies less volume after melting.

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1997 · Question 26

Neglect supercooling. Which temperature-time description represents a pure molten substance cooling through complete solidification and then cooling further?

  1. Temperature falls continuously with an increasingly steep downward curve
  2. Temperature falls steadily along a straight line
  3. Temperature remains constant throughout
  4. Temperature falls, remains constant for an interval, then falls again
Answer and explanation

D: Temperature falls, remains constant for an interval, then falls again

A pure molten substance first cools to its freezing point. Temperature remains constant while latent heat is released during solidification, then falls again once the solid cools.

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1997 · Question 28

Ripples on water and light waves are similar because both

  1. have the same frequency
  2. can be refracted and diffracted
  3. are longitudinal waves
  4. have the same velocity.
Answer and explanation

B: can be refracted and diffracted

Water ripples and light can both bend when propagation conditions change and spread around edges or through openings. These are refraction and diffraction.

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1997 · Question 29

A plucked string’s fundamental frequency is 500 Hz at length 0.90 m. At unchanged tension and mass per unit length, what length gives fundamental frequency 150 Hz?

  1. 3 m
  2. 4 m
  3. 5 m
  4. 6 m
Answer and explanation

A: 3 m

With tension and mass per unit length fixed, the same string mode has frequency inversely proportional to length. Hence 500 ×0.90 =150 L, giving L =3 m.

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1997 · Question 30

The colours seen in thin films of oil on the road and in soap bubbles are due to

  1. Reflection
  2. Interference
  3. Diffraction
  4. Polarization.
Answer and explanation

B: Interference

Light reflected from the upper and lower film surfaces follows different optical paths. Their waves reinforce some wavelengths and cancel others, producing the visible colours.

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1997 · Question 31

At a particular instant, two sinusoidal wave profiles P and Q of the same wavelength have positive crests, negative troughs and zero crossings at matching positions. When superposed at that instant, they interfere

  1. destructively to produce a wave of a larger amplitude
  2. destructively to produce a wave of a smaller amplitude
  3. constructively to produce a wave of a larger amplitude
  4. constructively to produce a wave of a smaller amplitude.
Answer and explanation

C: constructively to produce a wave of a larger amplitude

When two wave profiles have crests, troughs and zero crossings aligned, their displacements have the same sign at each position. Adding them produces a larger amplitude: constructive interference.

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1997 · Question 32

A sonometer’s hanging load is immersed in water without touching the bucket, reducing the wire tension. With water conditions and the wire’s mass per unit length fixed, how can its original fundamental frequency be restored?

  1. Decrease the vibrating length of the wire
  2. Increase the vibrating length of the wire
  3. Increase the mass per unit length of the wire
  4. Change the water temperature alone
Answer and explanation

A: Decrease the vibrating length of the wire

Immersing the hanging load adds upthrust and reduces the tension in the sonometer wire. Since f =√(T/μ)/(2 L), shortening the vibrating length can offset the tension reduction and restore the original frequency.

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1997 · Question 35

Light travels at 3.0 ×10⁸ m/s in vacuum and 2.4 ×10⁸ m/s in a material. Find the material’s refractive index.

  1. 2.33
  2. 2.25
  3. 1.33
  4. 1.25
Answer and explanation

D: 1.25

Refractive index is the ratio of vacuum light speed to speed in the material: n =3.0 ×10⁸/(2.4 ×10⁸) =1.25.

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1997 · Question 37

Which electromagnetic band is commonly used to detect temperature differences in objects near ordinary environmental temperatures?

  1. X-rays
  2. Gamma rays
  3. Ultraviolet
  4. Infrared
Answer and explanation

D: Infrared

Objects near ordinary environmental temperatures emit much of their thermal radiation in the infrared. Infrared detectors can measure changes in that emission to detect temperature differences.

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1997 · Question 40

Three identical cells, each of emf 1.5 V and internal resistance 1 Ω, are connected in parallel with matching polarities across a 2/3 Ω resistor. Find the resistor current.

  1. 0.5 A
  2. 0.9 A
  3. 1.5 A
  4. 4.5 A
Answer and explanation

C: 1.5 A

Identical cells in parallel retain emf 1.5 V and have combined internal resistance 1/3 Ω. With the 2/3 Ω load, total resistance is 1 Ω, so current is 1.5/1 =1.5 A.

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1997 · Question 42

Moving 100 μC of charge between two points requires 8 ×10⁻² J of work. Find the magnitude of their potential difference.

  1. 4.0 ×10² V
  2. 4.0 ×10⁴ V
  3. 8.0 ×10² V
  4. 8.0 ×10⁴ V
Answer and explanation

C: 8.0 ×10² V

Potential difference is work per charge. Convert 100 μC to 1.00 ×10⁻⁴ C, then V =0.08/(1.00 ×10⁻⁴) =800 V.

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1997 · Question 43

In a working metre bridge with uniform wire, resistors 2 Ω and 3 Ω occupy the left and right gaps. Find the balance position measured from the left end.

  1. 20 cm
  2. 40 cm
  3. 60 cm
  4. 80 cm
Answer and explanation

B: 40 cm

At balance, resistance ratio equals uniform-wire length ratio:2/3 =l/(100 −l). Thus 2(100 −l) =3 l, giving l =40 cm from the left.

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1997 · Question 44

Two initially uncharged 50 μF capacitors are connected in series across a 100 V battery. Find the final charge magnitude on each capacitor plate.

  1. 5.00 ×10⁻⁵ C
  2. 2.50 ×10⁻³ C
  3. 1.25 ×10⁻³ C
  4. 1.00 ×10⁻² C
Answer and explanation

B: 2.50 ×10⁻³ C

Two equal 50 μF capacitors in series have equivalent capacitance 25 μF. The series charge is 25 ×10⁻⁶ ×100 =2.50 ×10⁻³ C. Each capacitor has that charge magnitude and a 50 V drop.

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1997 · Question 45

An electric cooker operates continuously at 1000 W for 5 hours. Find the electrical energy consumed.

  1. 5.3 ×10³ J
  2. 6.5 ×10³ J
  3. 1.8 ×10⁷ J
  4. 2.3 ×10⁷ J
Answer and explanation

C: 1.8 ×10⁷ J

Five hours is 5 ×3600 =18000 seconds. At constant 1000 W, energy used is Pt =1000 ×18000 =1.8 ×10⁷ J.

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1997 · Question 47

An AC voltage is V =311 sin(314.2 t), with t in seconds and phase in radians. Find the frequency using π =3.142.

  1. 50.0 Hz
  2. 100.0 Hz
  3. 311.0 Hz
  4. 314.2 Hz
Answer and explanation

A: 50.0 Hz

In V =V₀ sinωt, angular frequency is 314.2 rad/s. Ordinary frequency isω/(2π) =314.2/(2 ×3.142) =50.0 Hz.

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1997 · Question 48

In sinusoidal steady state in a purely inductive circuit, the current

  1. Lags the voltage by 90°
  2. Leads the voltage by 90°
  3. Is in phase with the voltage
  4. Leads the voltage by 180°
Answer and explanation

A: Lags the voltage by 90°

For an ideal inductor, v =L di/dt. Differentiating a sinusoidal current advances its phase by 90°, so voltage leads current by 90° and current lags voltage by 90°.

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1997 · Question 49

A characteristic of neutron-induced uranium fission is that it can

  1. Produce only non-radioactive products
  2. Sustain a chain reaction under suitable conditions
  3. Occur without releasing any neutrons in its usual reactor process
  4. Release energy while leaving the total rest mass exactly unchanged
Answer and explanation

B: Sustain a chain reaction under suitable conditions

Neutron-induced fission can release neutrons that trigger further fissions, allowing a chain reaction under suitable conditions. The released energy comes from a decrease in total rest mass.

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1997 · Question 50

In a graphite-moderated uranium reactor, graphite surrounding the fuel is used mainly to

  1. Absorb neutrons to halt the reaction
  2. Create the neutrons that initiate the reaction
  3. Slow fast neutrons to help sustain the fission chain reaction
  4. Speed up neutrons to accelerate the reaction
Answer and explanation

C: Slow fast neutrons to help sustain the fission chain reaction

Graphite acts as a moderator. Collisions with carbon nuclei slow fast neutrons, making them more effective at causing fission in uranium-235 and helping sustain the chain reaction.

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1995 · Question 1

Which of the following is the dimension of pressure?

  1. ML⁻¹T⁻²
  2. MLT⁻²
  3. ML²T⁻³
  4. ML⁻³
Answer and explanation

A: ML⁻¹T⁻²

Pressure is force divided by area. Force has dimensions MLT⁻² and area L², so pressure has dimensions ML⁻¹T⁻².

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1995 · Question 2

A simple pendulum at small amplitude passes its lowest point twice per second. Find its length to two decimal places, using g =10 m/s².

  1. 0.25 m
  2. 0.45 m
  3. 0.58 m
  4. 1.00 m
Answer and explanation

A: 0.25 m

A pendulum crosses its lowest point twice per complete oscillation, so two crossings per second mean period 1 s. From T =2π√(L/g), L =10/(4π²) =0.253… m, or 0.25 m to two decimal places.

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1995 · Question 3

Three non-collinear points are O, A and B. Vector P runs from O to A, Q from O to B, and R from B to A. Which relation is correct?

  1. P = Q + R
  2. P = Q – R
  3. P = R – Q
  4. P + Q + R = 0
Answer and explanation

A: P = Q + R

Following Q from O to B and then R from B to A reaches the same endpoint as P from O to A. Therefore P =Q +R.

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1995 · Question 4

A 20 N load is held at rest by two symmetric cords, each making 30° above horizontal. Find the tension T in each cord.

  1. 10.0 N
  2. 11.8 N
  3. 20.0 N
  4. 40.0 N
Answer and explanation

C: 20.0 N

The two equal tensions each make 30° above horizontal. Horizontal components cancel, while vertical balance gives 2 T sin 30° =20 N. Since sin 30° =1/2, T =20 N.

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1995 · Question 5

When a ball rolls on a smooth level ground, the motion of its centre is

  1. Translational
  2. Oscillatory
  3. Random
  4. Rotational
Answer and explanation

A: Translational

The centre of a rolling ball moves along the ground as the ball changes position. This is translational motion; rotation describes the ball turning about its centre.

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1995 · Question 7

A 20 kg block on a smooth 30° incline is joined by a light inextensible string over a frictionless massless pulley to a hanging 30 kg mass. Use g =10 m/s². Find the acceleration magnitude.

  1. 2 m/s²
  2. 4 m/s²
  3. 6 m/s²
  4. 8 m/s²
Answer and explanation

B: 4 m/s²

The hanging weight is 30 ×10 =300 N. The 20 kg block’s downslope weight component is 20 ×10 sin 30° =100 N. The net driving force is 200 N on 50 kg, so a =4 m/s².

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1995 · Question 8

Approximate lunar surface gravity as one-sixth of Earth’s. If Earth’s gravity is 10 m/s², find lunar gravity to two decimal places.

  1. 0.10 m/s²
  2. 0.74 m/s²
  3. 1.67 m/s²
  4. 10.00 m/s²
Answer and explanation

C: 1.67 m/s²

Using the usual approximation that lunar surface gravity is one-sixth of Earth’s gives gmoon =10/6 =1.666… m/s², or 1.67 m/s².

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1995 · Question 14

A wire obeying Hooke’s law is extended by 0.02 m from its unstretched length by a final force of 500 N. Find its stored elastic energy.

  1. 5 J
  2. 10 J
  3. 10³ J
  4. 10⁴ J
Answer and explanation

A: 5 J

For a Hooke’s-law wire, force rises linearly from zero to 500 N over the 0.02 m extension. Stored energy is the triangular area under the force-extension graph:½ ×500 ×0.02 =5 J.

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1995 · Question 17

A fixed amount of air in a bubble rises slowly through a lake at constant temperature. Neglect surface-tension effects. Its volume increases because

  1. Atmospheric pressure acts on the surface of the lake.
  2. Pressure increases with depth of the lake.
  3. Density remains constant with pressure
  4. The bubble experiences an upthrust.
Answer and explanation

B: Pressure increases with depth of the lake.

Water pressure is higher at greater depth. As the bubble rises, external pressure falls. At constant temperature a fixed amount of gas expands as its pressure decreases, according to Boyle’s law.

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1995 · Question 18

In the classical ideal-gas model, absolute temperature is a measure of the

  1. Total heat transferred to the gas
  2. Mean translational kinetic energy per molecule
  3. Kinetic energy of one particular molecule
  4. Total work done by the molecules
Answer and explanation

B: Mean translational kinetic energy per molecule

For a classical ideal gas, average translational kinetic energy per molecule is 3 kT/2. Temperature therefore measures this average, rather than the energy of a particular molecule or total heat transfer.

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1995 · Question 22

An ideal 2000 W kettle heats 2.0 kg of water from 20 °C to 100 °C. Neglect kettle heat capacity and heat loss. With water’s specific heat capacity 4200 J/(kg·K), how long does this take?

  1. 420 s
  2. 336 s
  3. 168 s
  4. 84 s
Answer and explanation

B: 336 s

The temperature rise is 100 −20 =80 K. Heating needs Q =mcΔT =2.0 ×4200 ×80 =672000 J. At 2000 W, the time is 672000/2000 =336 s.

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1995 · Question 27

Which of the following is the exclusive property of a transverse wave?

  1. Diffraction
  2. Refraction
  3. Compression
  4. Polarization
Answer and explanation

D: Polarization

Polarization selects the direction of oscillation in the plane perpendicular to travel. That directional freedom belongs to transverse waves; a purely longitudinal wave oscillates along its travel direction.

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1995 · Question 28

A radio signal has wavelength 1500 m and frequency 200 kHz. At the same wave speed, what wavelength corresponds to 1000 kHz?

  1. 7 500 m
  2. 300 m
  3. 75 m
  4. 15 m
Answer and explanation

B: 300 m

The wave speed is fλ =200000 ×1500 =3 ×10⁸ m/s. At 1000000 Hz, the wavelength is 3 ×10⁸/10⁶ =300 m.

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1995 · Question 29

The difference between sound waves and light waves is that sound waves

  1. Are transverse while light waves are longitudinal.
  2. Require a medium to travel while light waves do not.
  3. Can be diffracted but light waves cannot
  4. Cannot be reflected but light waves can.
Answer and explanation

B: Require a medium to travel while light waves do not.

Sound consists of mechanical disturbances of a material medium. Light is electromagnetic radiation and can propagate through vacuum, so it does not require matter along its path.

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1995 · Question 31

For a steady simple acoustic tone, its pitch is increased primarily by

  1. Increasing the frequency
  2. Increasing the amplitude
  3. Decreasing the loudness
  4. Decreasing the intensity
Answer and explanation

A: Increasing the frequency

For a steady simple tone, a higher vibration frequency is heard as a higher pitch. Changing amplitude mainly changes loudness rather than the tone’s frequency.

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1995 · Question 32

During a total solar eclipse observed from Earth, which arrangement holds?

  1. Earth is between the Moon and Sun
  2. Sun is between the Moon and Earth
  3. Moon is between the Sun and Earth
  4. The ozone layer is threatened
Answer and explanation

C: Moon is between the Sun and Earth

During a total solar eclipse, the Moon lies between the Sun and Earth. An observer in the Moon’s umbra sees the entire bright solar disc covered; the alignment and apparent size must also be suitable.

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1995 · Question 36

Which of the following pairs of colours gives the widest separation in the spectrum of white light?

  1. Red and violet
  2. Green and yellow
  3. Red and indigo
  4. Yellow and violet.
Answer and explanation

A: Red and violet

Red and violet occupy opposite ends of the visible spectrum. Their separation spans the full listed colour range, exceeding any pair with an endpoint nearer the middle.

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1995 · Question 37

Parallel plates are 8.0 ×10⁻³ m apart at a potential difference of 600 V, with the negative plate earthed. Neglect edge effects. Find the electric-field magnitude.

  1. 4.8 V/m
  2. 75.0 V/m
  3. 4800.0 V/m
  4. 75000.0 V/m
Answer and explanation

D: 75000.0 V/m

Away from the edges, the uniform field between parallel plates has magnitude E =V/d. Thus E =600/(8.0 ×10⁻³) =75000 V/m. It points from the positive plate to the earthed negative plate.

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1995 · Question 38

Which statement best describes Earth’s magnetic field at different surface locations?

  1. The same in magnitude and direction
  2. The same in magnitude but different in direction
  3. Different in both magnitude and direction
  4. Different in magnitude but not in direction.
Answer and explanation

C: Different in both magnitude and direction

Earth’s magnetic field varies geographically in strength and direction. Its inclination and declination, as well as its magnitude, depend on location.

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1995 · Question 39

A resistor’s resistance is halved and its applied voltage tripled. Find the ratio of its new current to its original current.

  1. 1:6
  2. 1:3
  3. 2:1
  4. 6:1
Answer and explanation

D: 6:1

Ohm’s law gives I =V/R. Tripling voltage and halving resistance gives Inew =3 V/(R/2) =6 V/R, so the new-to-old current ratio is 6:1.

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1995 · Question 40

A battery of emf 12 V and internal resistance 0.5 Ω is connected across a cable of resistance 1.0 Ω. Find the current.

  1. 16.0 A
  2. 8.0 A
  3. 0.8 A
  4. 0.4 A
Answer and explanation

B: 8.0 A

The battery’s internal resistance is in series with the cable. Total resistance is 0.5 +1.0 =1.5 Ω, giving I =12/1.5 =8.0 A.

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1995 · Question 43

A capacitor network between two terminals has these sections in series: 2 μF, 3 μF, a parallel pair of 2 μF and 4 μF, then 4 μF. Find the equivalent capacitance.

  1. 15.0 μF
  2. 9.8 μF
  3. 1.3 μF
  4. 0.8 μF
Answer and explanation

D: 0.8 μF

The parallel pair gives 2 +4 =6 μF. The four series sections are 2,3,6 and 4 μF, so 1/C =1/2 +1/3 +1/6 +1/4 =1.25 μF⁻¹. Therefore C =0.8 μF.

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1995 · Question 45

The maximum voltage magnitude across a 100 Ω resistor is 20 V. Find its maximum instantaneous power.

  1. 5.00 W
  2. 4.00 W
  3. 2.00 W
  4. 0.25 W
Answer and explanation

B: 4.00 W

Instantaneous resistor power is p =v²/R. When the voltage magnitude reaches 20 V, its maximum power is 20²/100 =4 W.

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1995 · Question 47

An ideal transformer has 400 primary turns and 100 secondary turns. With 12 V AC applied to the primary, what is the secondary voltage, using the same voltage convention?

  1. 3 V
  2. 6 V
  3. 24 V
  4. 48 V
Answer and explanation

A: 3 V

An ideal transformer has voltage ratio equal to turns ratio. The secondary voltage is 12 ×100/400 =3 V, making this a step-down transformer.

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1994 · Question 4

An object is projected at 80 m/s,30° above horizontal. Neglect air resistance and use g =10 m/s². Find its maximum height above the launch point.

  1. 20 m
  2. 80 m
  3. 160 m
  4. 320 m
Answer and explanation

B: 80 m

The initial upward velocity is 80 sin 30° =40 m/s. At maximum height the vertical velocity is zero, so h =40²/(2 ×10) =80 m.

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1994 · Question 6

A particle moves in a fixed horizontal circle at constant angular velocity. Which statement is true?

  1. Kinetic energy is constant but linear momentum varies
  2. Linear momentum is constant but kinetic energy varies
  3. Kinetic energy and linear momentum are both constant
  4. Speed and linear velocity are both constant
Answer and explanation

A: Kinetic energy is constant but linear momentum varies

At constant angular velocity on a fixed circle, speed is constant, so kinetic energy stays constant. The direction of velocity changes continuously, making linear momentum change direction.

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1994 · Question 8

A uniform horizontal beam of weight 200 N and length 50 m is pivoted at one end. A cord at the other end makes 30° above the beam and holds it in equilibrium. Find the cord tension.

  1. 10 N
  2. 20 N
  3. 100 N
  4. 200 N
Answer and explanation

D: 200 N

Taking moments about the pivot, the cord contributes T sin 30° ×L while the uniform beam’s weight contributes 200 ×L/2. Thus T ×0.5 =100, giving T =200 N.

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1994 · Question 9

A 50 kg object is released from rest 2 m above the ground. Neglect air resistance and use g =10 m/s². Find its kinetic energy just before impact.

  1. 250 J
  2. 1 000 J
  3. 10 000 J
  4. 100 000 J
Answer and explanation

B: 1 000 J

Neglecting air resistance, gravitational potential energy becomes kinetic energy. Thus K =mgh =50 ×10 ×2 =1000 J just before impact.

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1994 · Question 11

A horizontal force just starts a 20 kg object sliding on a horizontal surface. The coefficient of static friction is 0.2. Find the force, using g = 10 m/s².

  1. 400.0 N
  2. 40.0 N
  3. 4.0 N
  4. 0.4 N
Answer and explanation

B: 40.0 N

Just before sliding starts, the limiting friction is μₛN. The horizontal force leaves N = mg, so F = 0.2 × 20 × 10 = 40 N.

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1994 · Question 17

For a connected liquid of uniform density at rest, neglecting capillary effects, which statements are true? I. Pressure acts equally in all directions at a point. II. Pressure decreases with depth. III. Pressure at the same horizontal level is the same. IV. Pressure depends on the cross-sectional area of a barometer tube.

  1. I and III only.
  2. I, II and III only.
  3. I, II and IV only.
  4. I, II, III and IV.
Answer and explanation

A: I and III only.

At a point in a liquid at rest, pressure acts equally in every direction. In a connected liquid of uniform density, equal depths have equal pressure. Pressure increases with depth and does not depend on tube area.

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1994 · Question 18

The mass of a specific gravity bottle is 15.2 g when it is empty. It is 24.8 g when filled with kerosene and 27.2 g when filled with distilled water. Calculate the relative density of kerosene.

  1. 1.25
  2. 1.10
  3. 0.90
  4. 0.80
Answer and explanation

D: 0.80

The kerosene mass is 24.8 − 15.2 = 9.6 g, and the water mass is 27.2 − 15.2 = 12.0 g. Equal bottle volumes give relative density 9.6/12.0 = 0.80.

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1994 · Question 19

If a solid X floats in liquid P of relative density 2.0 and in liquid Q of relative density 1.5, it can be inferred that the

  1. Weight of P displaced is greater than that of Q
  2. Weight of P displaced is less than that of Q
  3. Volume of P displaced is greater than that of Q
  4. Volume of P displaced is less than that of Q
Answer and explanation

D: Volume of P displaced is less than that of Q

A floating object displaces its own weight of either liquid. Since P is denser, less of it is needed to provide that weight: Vₚ/Vq = 1.5/2.0 = 0.75.

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1994 · Question 20

Convert 78 °C to kelvin, to the nearest kelvin.

  1. 100 K
  2. 351 K
  3. 378 K
  4. 444 K
Answer and explanation

B: 351 K

Convert Celsius to kelvin by adding 273.15. Thus 78 °C is 351.15 K, which rounds to 351 K to the nearest kelvin.

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1994 · Question 22

Mix 100 g of liquid L₁ at 78 °C with X grams of liquid L₂ at 50 °C. The final temperature is 66 °C. The specific heat capacity of L₂ is half that of L₁. Neglect heat loss and container heat capacity. Find X.

  1. 50 g
  2. 100 g
  3. 150 g
  4. 200 g
Answer and explanation

C: 150 g

Heat lost equals heat gained: 100 c(78 − 66) = X(c/2)(66 − 50). Therefore 1200 c = 8 Xc, so X = 150 g.

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1994 · Question 24

A heater melts 100 g of ice at its melting point in 1 minute. Neglect heat losses and the test tube’s heat capacity. Find its power. Use latent heat of fusion 336 J/g.

  1. 336 W
  2. 450 W
  3. 560 W
  4. 600 W
Answer and explanation

C: 560 W

Melting requires Q = mL = 100 × 336 = 33600 J. One minute is 60 s, so the required power is Q/t = 33600/60 = 560 W.

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1994 · Question 28

A transverse wave is y = 0.3 sin(0.5 x − 50 t), where x and y are in centimetres, t is in seconds, and the phase is in radians. What is the maximum displacement magnitude?

  1. 50.0 cm
  2. 2.5 cm
  3. 0.5 cm
  4. 0.3 cm
Answer and explanation

D: 0.3 cm

In y = A sin(kx − ωt), the sine varies between −1 and 1. The largest displacement magnitude is therefore A = 0.3 cm.

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1994 · Question 29

Sound travels from the surface to the sea bottom and returns after 4 s. If its speed is 1500 m/s, find the depth.

  1. 6000 m
  2. 3000 m
  3. 1500 m
  4. 375 m
Answer and explanation

B: 3000 m

The echo makes a return trip, travelling twice the sea depth. Thus d = vt/2 = 1500 × 4/2 = 3000 m.

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1994 · Question 30

Which change halves the fundamental frequency of a stretched sonometer wire, with other relevant quantities held constant?

  1. Double its vibrating length at fixed tension and mass per unit length
  2. Double its mass at fixed vibrating length and tension
  3. Halve its tension at fixed length and mass per unit length
  4. Halve its absolute temperature
Answer and explanation

A: Double its vibrating length at fixed tension and mass per unit length

For a stretched wire, f = (1/2 L)√(T/μ), where μ is mass per unit length. Doubling the vibrating length while holding tension and μ fixed halves the fundamental frequency.

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1994 · Question 32

A stretched string has fundamental frequency 400 Hz. Its vibrating length is doubled and its tension quadrupled, with mass per unit length unchanged. Find the new frequency.

  1. 200 Hz
  2. 400 Hz
  3. 800 Hz
  4. 1600 Hz
Answer and explanation

B: 400 Hz

Fundamental frequency is proportional to √T/L at fixed mass per unit length. The new frequency is 400 × √4/2 = 400 Hz.

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1994 · Question 33

To produce a parallel paraxial beam from a concave mirror, where should a small lamp be placed on its principal axis?

  1. One focal length from the mirror
  2. Two focal lengths from the mirror
  3. At the image distance for an arbitrary object
  4. Two radii of curvature from the mirror
Answer and explanation

A: One focal length from the mirror

A small lamp at a concave mirror’s principal focus sends rays that reflect parallel to the principal axis in the paraxial approximation. Its distance is therefore the focal length.

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1994 · Question 34

Light of frequency 6.0 × 10¹⁴ Hz enters stationary glass of refractive index 1.5 from air. Find its frequency in the glass.

  1. 4.0 × 10¹⁴ Hz
  2. 6.0 × 10¹⁴ Hz
  3. 7.5 × 10¹⁴ Hz
  4. 9.0 × 10¹⁴ Hz
Answer and explanation

B: 6.0 × 10¹⁴ Hz

A stationary boundary does not change the light’s frequency. In glass, speed and wavelength decrease together, leaving frequency at 6.0 × 10¹⁴ Hz.

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1994 · Question 35

A converging thin lens of focal length 20 cm forms a virtual image with magnification 2. Find the object distance.

  1. 5 cm
  2. 10 cm
  3. 30 cm
  4. 40 cm
Answer and explanation

B: 10 cm

For an upright virtual image of magnification 2, v = −2 u. The thin-lens equation gives 1/20 =1/u −1/(2 u) =1/(2 u), so u =10 cm.

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1994 · Question 36

An object touches the bottom of a glass block 3.0 cm thick, with refractive index 1.5. Viewed from air nearly normally through the top face, by how much does the object appear raised?

  1. 1.0 cm
  2. 1.5 cm
  3. 2.0 cm
  4. 2.5 cm
Answer and explanation

A: 1.0 cm

For near-normal viewing through a plane glass surface, apparent depth is real depth divided by refractive index:3.0/1.5 =2.0 cm. The object appears raised by 3.0 −2.0 =1.0 cm.

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1994 · Question 37

A projection lantern uses a converging lens of focal length f to make a real enlarged image on a screen. Its object distance u must satisfy

  1. u > 2 f > f
  2. u < f < 2 f
  3. u = f < 2 f
  4. f < u < 2 f
Answer and explanation

D: f < u < 2 f

A projector needs a real enlarged image on a screen. A converging lens produces that image when the object is farther than f but nearer than 2 f.

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1994 · Question 41

A plastic pen rubbed with dry silk attracts a small piece of paper. What happens to the pen and cloth during rubbing?

  1. Both the pen and the cloth are magnetized
  2. The pen is magnetized but the cloth is not
  3. The pen is charged while the cloth is magnetized
  4. Both the pen and the cloth are charged.
Answer and explanation

D: Both the pen and the cloth are charged.

Rubbing transfers electric charge between the pen and cloth, leaving opposite charges on them. The charged pen polarizes nearby neutral paper, and the nearer opposite charge is attracted more strongly.

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1994 · Question 44

Resistors R₁ =4 Ω and R₂ =5 Ω are in parallel across the same voltage. Find P₁:P₂.

  1. 4:5
  2. 5:4
  3. 16:25
  4. 25:16
Answer and explanation

B: 5:4

Parallel resistors have the same voltage. Since P = V²/R, their power ratio is P₁/P₂ = R₂/R₁ =5/4, giving 5:4.

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1994 · Question 45

A cell of emf 12 V and internal resistance 1 Ω supplies two parallel resistors, 12 Ω and 6 Ω. Find the magnitude of current in the 12 Ω resistor.

  1. 0.8 A
  2. 1.0 A
  3. 1.6 A
  4. 2.4 A
Answer and explanation

A: 0.8 A

The parallel equivalent is 12 ×6/(12 +6) =4 Ω. Including internal resistance gives 5 Ω, so total current is 12/5 =2.4 A. Terminal voltage is 2.4 ×4 =9.6 V, giving 9.6/12 =0.8 A in the 12 Ω resistor.

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1994 · Question 47

If two parallel conductors carry currents flowing in the same direction, the conductors will

  1. Attract each other
  2. Repel each other
  3. Both move in the same direction
  4. Have no effect on each other.
Answer and explanation

A: Attract each other

Each conductor produces a magnetic field at the other. Applying the magnetic-force direction rule to parallel currents in the same direction gives a force on each wire toward the other.

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1994 · Question 49

A sinusoidal alternating voltage has frequency 50 Hz. P is an upward zero crossing and R is the immediately following downward zero crossing. Find the time from P to R.

  1. 25 s
  2. 1/50 s
  3. 1/100 s
  4. 1/200 s
Answer and explanation

C: 1/100 s

Consecutive zero crossings with opposite slopes are half a cycle apart. At 50 Hz, a cycle lasts 1/50 s, so the interval is 1/100 s.

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1994 · Question 50

In the ordinary single-photon photoelectric effect, light of photon energy 2 eV falls on a metal of work function 3 eV. What happens?

  1. No photoelectron is emitted
  2. A few electrons emerge with maximum kinetic energy 1 eV
  3. A few electrons emerge with maximum kinetic energy 3 eV
  4. Many photoelectrons are emitted
Answer and explanation

A: No photoelectron is emitted

A photon must supply at least the work function to liberate an electron. Here 2 eV is less than 3 eV, so ordinary single-photon photoemission does not occur.

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1993 · Question 1

Which of the following quantities has the same unit as the watt?

  1. Force x time
  2. Force x distance
  3. Force x acceleration
  4. Force x velocity
Answer and explanation

D: Force x velocity

A watt is a joule per second. Force multiplied by velocity has units N·m/s =J/s =W, so it has the unit of power.

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1993 · Question 4

Two forces of 7 N and 3 N act at right angles. If θ is the angle between the resultant and the 7 N force, which relation holds?

  1. cos θ =3/7
  2. sin θ =3/7
  3. tan θ =3/7
  4. cot θ =3/7
Answer and explanation

C: tan θ =3/7

The resultant has components 7 N along the larger force and 3 N perpendicular to it. Therefore tan θ =opposite/adjacent =3/7.

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1993 · Question 5

An aeroplane lands at 180 km/h and slows uniformly to rest in 30 s. What distance does it cover before stopping?

  1. 360 m
  2. 540 m
  3. 750 m
  4. 957 m
Answer and explanation

C: 750 m

The landing speed is 180/3.6 =50 m/s. Uniform deceleration gives average speed(50 +0)/2 =25 m/s, so distance is 25 ×30 =750 m.

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1993 · Question 8

Starting with water stored at height, which sequence describes the main energy conversions when a hydroelectric station powers a lamp?

  1. Electrical → mechanical → potential → light
  2. Gravitational potential → mechanical → electrical → light
  3. Mechanical → sound → electrical → light
  4. Kinetic → mechanical → electrical → light
Answer and explanation

B: Gravitational potential → mechanical → electrical → light

Water stored above a turbine has gravitational potential energy. Flowing water turns the turbine, which drives a generator. Electrical energy from the generator is then converted to light by a lamp.

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1993 · Question 13

An object of mass 400 g and density 600 kg/m³ hangs at rest from a string with half its volume immersed in paraffin of density 900 kg/m³. Find the string tension. Use g =10 m/s².

  1. 1.0 N
  2. 3.0 N
  3. 4.0 N
  4. 5.0 N
Answer and explanation

A: 1.0 N

The object weighs 0.4 ×10 =4 N. Half its volume displaces paraffin of mass 0.5 ×0.4 ×900/600 =0.3 kg, giving 3 N upthrust. The string tension is 4 −3 =1 N.

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1993 · Question 14

With its reference-junction temperature fixed, a thermocouple measures temperature through changes in its

  1. e.m.f. changes with temperature
  2. Resistance changes with temperature
  3. Volume changes with temperature
  4. Pressure changes with resistance.
Answer and explanation

A: e.m.f. changes with temperature

With the reference junction held at a known temperature, a thermocouple’s emf changes with the measuring-junction temperature. Calibration relates that voltage to temperature.

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1993 · Question 16

A fixed mass of ideal gas has its volume halved and absolute temperature doubled. What happens to its pressure?

  1. Remains constant
  2. Increases by a factor of 4
  3. Increases by a factor of 3
  4. Decreases by a factor of 4
Answer and explanation

B: Increases by a factor of 4

For a fixed amount of ideal gas, P is proportional toT/V. Doubling absolute temperature while halving volume multiplies pressure by 2/(1/2) =4.

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1993 · Question 17

Mix 200 g of water at 90 °C with 100 g of water at 30 °C. Neglect heat loss and the container’s heat capacity. What is the final temperature?

  1. 50 °C
  2. 60 °C
  3. 70 °C
  4. 80 °C
Answer and explanation

C: 70 °C

Ignoring heat loss, heat lost by hot water equals heat gained by cool water:200(90 −T) =100(T −30). Solving gives 300 T =21000, so T =70 °C.

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1993 · Question 19

A solid melts at 80 °C. At that temperature,10⁵ J melts 10 g of the solid. Find its specific latent heat of fusion.

  1. 1.00 ×10³ J/kg
  2. 1.25 ×10⁵ J/kg
  3. 1.00 ×10⁷ J/kg
  4. 8.00 ×10⁸ J/kg
Answer and explanation

C: 1.00 ×10⁷ J/kg

At the melting point, heat goes into the phase change. The mass is 10 g =0.010 kg, so specific latent heat is Q/m =10⁵/0.010 =1.00 ×10⁷ J/kg.

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1993 · Question 21

A stationary wave has wavelength 60 cm. Find the distance between consecutive antinodes.

  1. 15 cm
  2. 30 cm
  3. 60 cm
  4. 120 cm
Answer and explanation

B: 30 cm

Consecutive antinodes of a stationary wave are half a wavelength apart. Their separation is therefore 60/2 =30 cm.

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1993 · Question 22

Which of the following waves can propagate through a vacuum?

  1. High velocity sound waves
  2. Ultrasonic waves
  3. Acoustic waves
  4. Infra-red waves
Answer and explanation

D: Infra-red waves

Infrared radiation is electromagnetic and can travel through vacuum. Sound, ultrasound and other acoustic waves need a material medium for their pressure disturbances.

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1993 · Question 23

A radar pulse returns to its transmitting antenna 4 ×10⁻³ s after reflection from an aircraft. How far away is the aircraft? Use c =3 ×10⁸ m/s.

  1. 6.0 ×10² km
  2. 1.2 ×10³ km
  3. 3.0 ×10³ km
  4. 6.0 ×10⁵ km
Answer and explanation

A: 6.0 ×10² km

The measured time includes the outward and return journeys. One-way distance is ct/2 =(3 ×10⁸)(4 ×10⁻³)/2 =6 ×10⁵ m =6 ×10² km.

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1993 · Question 26

A concave mirror of radius r forms a real image. Let u and v be the positive object and image distances. Which expression gives the magnitude of linear magnification?

  1. v/r −1
  2. 2 v/r −1
  3. u/r −1
  4. 2 u/r −1
Answer and explanation

B: 2 v/r −1

For a real image, magnification magnitude is v/u. Since 1/u +1/v =2/r, multiplying byv gives v/u +1 =2 v/r. Therefore magnification magnitude is 2 v/r −1.

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1993 · Question 27

A thin camera lens has focal length 20 cm. An object is 100 cm from the lens. What lens-to-film distance gives a sharp image?

  1. 17 cm
  2. 20 cm
  3. 25 cm
  4. 100 cm
Answer and explanation

C: 25 cm

Using 1/f =1/u +1/v gives 1/v =1/20 −1/100 =1/25. The film must therefore be 25 cm from the lens to receive the sharp real image.

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1993 · Question 30

The property of the eye known as its power of accommodation is controlled by the

  1. Pupil
  2. Vitreous humour
  3. Iris
  4. Ciliary muscles
Answer and explanation

D: Ciliary muscles

Ciliary muscles change tension in the supporting fibres of the lens. This changes lens curvature and optical power, allowing the eye to focus on objects at different distances.

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1993 · Question 34

Which of the following correctly explain(s) why soft iron is preferred to steel in electromagnets? I Soft iron is more readily magnetized than steel. II Soft iron is more readily demagnetized than steel. III Soft iron retains magnetism more than steel.

  1. I only
  2. II and III only
  3. I and II only
  4. I, II and III.
Answer and explanation

C: I and II only

Soft iron magnetizes readily when current flows and loses most of that magnetism when current stops. These properties make the electromagnet easy to switch on and off. Steel retains more magnetism.

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1993 · Question 37

The terminal voltage of a battery is 4.0 V when supplying a current of 2.0 A, and 2.0 V when supplying a current of 3.0 A. The internal resistance of the battery is

  1. 0.5 Ω
  2. 1.0 Ω
  3. 2.0 Ω
  4. 4.0 Ω
Answer and explanation

C: 2.0 Ω

Terminal voltage is V =E −Ir. The voltage falls by 4 −2 =2 V when current rises by 3 −2 =1 A. Thus r =2/1 =2 Ω; both measurements then give emf 8 V.

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1993 · Question 38

A 12 V ideal battery supplies a 1 Ω resistor in series with two parallel branches. Each branch contains two 2 Ω resistors in series. What is the total current supplied by the battery?

  1. 4.00 A
  2. 1.30 A
  3. 0.80 A
  4. 0.75 A
Answer and explanation

A: 4.00 A

Each parallel branch has two 2 Ω resistors in series, giving 4 Ω per branch. Their parallel equivalent is 2 Ω. Adding the 1 Ω series resistor gives 3 Ω, so battery current is 12/3 =4 A.

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1993 · Question 41

A 24 V ideal battery is connected across two parallel branches. One branch contains 5 μF and 15 μF capacitors in series; the other contains a 20 μF capacitor. All are initially uncharged. After charging, what is the voltage across the 5 μF capacitor?

  1. 3 V
  2. 6 V
  3. 12 V
  4. 18 V
Answer and explanation

D: 18 V

The 5 μF and 15 μF capacitors are in series across 24 V. Their voltage drops are inversely proportional to capacitance, so the 5 μF capacitor gets 15/(5 +15) ×24 =18 V.

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1993 · Question 42

A resistive instrument rated 40 W has resistance 90 Ω. What operating voltage gives its rated power?

  1. 60 V
  2. 150 V
  3. 225 V
  4. 3 600 V
Answer and explanation

A: 60 V

For a resistive instrument, P =V²/R. Therefore V =√(PR) =√(40 ×90) =√3600 =60 V.

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1993 · Question 44

For a fixed transmitted power, the primary aim of high-voltage transmission is to

  1. Minimize electrical energy losses due to heat production
  2. Increase the rate of energy transfer by using high voltage
  3. Increase the current in the wires.
  4. Generate electricity at high current and low voltage.
Answer and explanation

A: Minimize electrical energy losses due to heat production

For the same transmitted power, raising voltage reduces current. Since transmission-wire heating is I²R, the smaller current reduces wasted energy.

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1993 · Question 45

Find the inductive reactance of a 30.0 mH inductor at 1.30 ×10³ Hz, to one decimal place.

  1. 39.0 Ω
  2. 122.5 Ω
  3. 245.0 Ω
  4. 39000.0 Ω
Answer and explanation

C: 245.0 Ω

Inductive reactance is Xᴸ =2πfL. Converting 30.0 mH to 0.0300 H gives 2π ×1300 ×0.0300 =245.04… Ω, or 245.0 Ω to one decimal place.

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1993 · Question 46

Which statements correctly describe cathode rays? I. They consist of small negatively charged particles. II. They can be deflected magnetically but not electrically. III. They consist of fast neutrons deflected by an electric field.

  1. I only
  2. III only
  3. I and II only
  4. II and III only
Answer and explanation

A: I only

Cathode rays are streams of electrons, which carry negative charge. An electric field can deflect them, and a magnetic field can deflect them when they have a velocity component perpendicular to it.

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1993 · Question 49

A nucleus has atomic number 88 and mass number 226. After two beta-minus decays and one alpha decay, which notation represents the final nucleus?

  1. ²²²₈₂Z
  2. ²²²₈₈Z
  3. ²²⁶₈₆Z
  4. ²²⁶₈₀Z
Answer and explanation

B: ²²²₈₈Z

Each beta-minus decay raises atomic number by 1 without changing mass number. An alpha decay lowers mass number by 4 and atomic number by 2. The final numbers are A =226 −4 =222 and Z =88 +2 −2 =88.

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1993 · Question 50

For a fixed metal surface in the ordinary photoelectric effect, the maximum kinetic energy of emitted photoelectrons depends on the

  1. Intensity of incident radiation
  2. Duration of illumination
  3. Temperature of the radiation source alone
  4. Frequency of incident radiation
Answer and explanation

D: Frequency of incident radiation

For a fixed metal surface, maximum photoelectron kinetic energy is Kmax =hf −φ. Increasing incident frequency above threshold raises the photon energy and therefore the maximum electron energy.

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1992 · Question 1

A ruler has divisions 1 cm apart. A single reading is rounded to the nearest division. What is the maximum magnitude of rounding error? Ignore other measurement errors.

  1. 0.1 cm
  2. 0.5 cm
  3. 1.0 cm
  4. 2.0 cm
Answer and explanation

B: 0.5 cm

When a reading is rounded to the nearest 1 cm division, it can differ from the true value by up to half a division. The rounding-error bound is therefore±0.5 cm.

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1992 · Question 2

For a simple pendulum undergoing small oscillations, which quantities affect its period? I. Bob mass. II. Pendulum length. III. Gravitational acceleration.

  1. I, II and III
  2. II and III only
  3. I and III only
  4. I and II only
Answer and explanation

B: II and III only

For small oscillations, T =2π√(L/g). The period depends on length and gravitational acceleration, but not on bob mass. Thus II and III are the relevant quantities.

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1992 · Question 10

In an experiment measuring Young’s modulus of a circular wire, the tensile stress depends on the

  1. Load and extension
  2. Load and radius of the wire
  3. Radius of the wire and extension
  4. Extension and original length of the wire
Answer and explanation

B: Load and radius of the wire

Tensile stress is force divided by cross-sectional area. For a circular wire, stress =F/(πr²), so the load and radius determine it. Extension and original length instead determine strain.

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1992 · Question 12

If a plastic sphere floats in water (density = 1000 kg m-3) with 0.5 of its volume submerged and floats in oil with 0.4 volume submerged, the density of the oil is

  1. 800 kg m-3
  2. 1 200 kg m-3
  3. 1 250 kg m-3
  4. 2 000 kg m-3
Answer and explanation

C: 1 250 kg m-3

Floating equilibrium gives sphere density =1000 ×0.5 =500 kg/m³. In the second liquid,500 =ρ ×0.4, so its density is 500/0.4 =1250 kg/m³.

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1992 · Question 16

At constant pressure, the density of a fixed mass of ideal gas is

  1. Constant as temperature changes
  2. Proportional to its volume
  3. Inversely proportional to its absolute temperature
  4. Independent of its volume
Answer and explanation

C: Inversely proportional to its absolute temperature

At constant pressure, a fixed amount of ideal gas satisfies V/T =constant. Since density is mass divided by volume, density is inversely proportional to absolute temperature.

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1992 · Question 17

How much heat is absorbed by 0.05 kg of copper, of specific heat capacity 390 J/(kg·K), when heated from 20 °C to 70 °C?

  1. 3.98 ×10⁻¹ J
  2. 9.75 ×10² J
  3. 3.98 ×10³ J
  4. 9.75 ×10³ J
Answer and explanation

B: 9.75 ×10² J

The temperature rise is 70 −20 =50 K. Heat absorbed is mcΔT =0.05 ×390 ×50 =975 J =9.75 ×10² J.

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1992 · Question 21

Which of the following characteristics of a wave is used in the measurement of the depth of the sea?

  1. Diffraction
  2. Interference
  3. Refraction
  4. Reflection
Answer and explanation

D: Reflection

Echo sounding sends a sound pulse downward and measures its return after reflection from the seabed. With sound speed v and round-trip time t, depth is vt/2.

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1992 · Question 23

A siren disc has 32 equally spaced holes in one ring. A single air jet produces one pulse per passing hole. If the disc rotates at 25 revolutions per second, what is the sound frequency?

  1. 80 Hz
  2. 600 Hz
  3. 800 Hz
  4. 1 600 Hz
Answer and explanation

C: 800 Hz

Each revolution lets 32 holes pass the air jet, producing 32 pressure pulses. At 25 revolutions per second, the pulse frequency is 32 ×25 =800 Hz.

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1992 · Question 24

Which of the following properties make the convex mirror useful as a driving mirror? I The image is real II The image is erect III It has a wide field of view IV The image is magnified

  1. I, II and IV
  2. I, II and III
  3. II and III
  4. I and III.
Answer and explanation

C: II and III

For objects in front of it, a convex mirror gives virtual, upright, diminished images. Its wide field of view lets a driver see more of the surrounding traffic. Therefore II and III apply.

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1992 · Question 25

An object is placed between the pole and focus of a concave mirror. The virtual image obtained is

  1. Diminished and upright
  2. Diminished and inverted
  3. Enlarged and inverted
  4. Enlarged and upright.
Answer and explanation

D: Enlarged and upright.

An object between a concave mirror and its focus produces a virtual image behind the mirror. The image is upright and larger than the object.

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1992 · Question 28

The speed of light in air is 3.0 ×10⁸ m/s. Find its speed in glass of refractive index 1.50 relative to air.

  1. 1.5 ×10⁸ m/s
  2. 3.0 ×10⁸ m/s
  3. 2.0 ×10⁸ m/s
  4. 6.0 ×10⁸ m/s
Answer and explanation

C: 2.0 ×10⁸ m/s

The refractive index is the speed in air divided by the speed in glass. Thus v =3.0 ×10⁸/1.50 =2.0 ×10⁸ m/s.

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1992 · Question 30

Which arrangement gives the conventional order of these electromagnetic bands from shorter to longer typical wavelengths?

  1. Gamma rays, ultraviolet rays, x-rays, infra-red rays.
  2. Gamma rays, x-rays, ultraviolet rays, infra-red rays
  3. Infra-red rays, ultraviolet rays, x-rays, gamma rays.
  4. Gamma rays, ultraviolet rays, infra-red rays, x- rays.
Answer and explanation

B: Gamma rays, x-rays, ultraviolet rays, infra-red rays

In the conventional electromagnetic-spectrum order, gamma rays have the shortest typical wavelengths, followed by X-rays, ultraviolet and infrared.

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1992 · Question 32

The angle between the direction of the earth’s magnetic field and the horizontal is called the

  1. Angle of deviation
  2. Magnetic declination
  3. Magnetic meridian
  4. Angle of dip
Answer and explanation

D: Angle of dip

Magnetic dip, also called inclination, is the angle the magnetic field makes with the horizontal. Declination instead measures the horizontal difference between geographic and magnetic north.

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1992 · Question 33

Find the magnitude of the force on an electron of charge−1.6 ×10⁻¹⁹ C in an electric field of magnitude 10⁸ V/m.

  1. 1.6 ×10⁻¹¹ N
  2. 1.6 ×10⁻¹⁴ N
  3. 1.6 ×10⁻¹⁶ N
  4. 1.0 ×10⁻¹⁶ N
Answer and explanation

A: 1.6 ×10⁻¹¹ N

Force magnitude is |q|E =(1.6 ×10⁻¹⁹)(10⁸) =1.6 ×10⁻¹¹ N. Because an electron is negatively charged, the force points opposite the electric field.

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1992 · Question 35

Which change does not alter the equilibrium emf of a primary cell, with chemistry and other conditions otherwise unchanged?

  1. Changing temperature
  2. Changing the cell’s physical size
  3. Changing the electrode materials
  4. Changing the electrolyte
Answer and explanation

B: Changing the cell’s physical size

Cell emf depends on electrode reactions, electrolyte conditions and temperature. Scaling up an otherwise identical cell increases available charge and can change internal resistance, but does not change its equilibrium emf.

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1992 · Question 39

A 5 V battery is connected across an initially uncharged 2.0 μF capacitor. After a long time, what is the magnitude of charge on either plate?

  1. 1.5 μC
  2. 10.0 μC
  3. 20.0 μC
  4. 50.0 μC
Answer and explanation

B: 10.0 μC

Charge magnitude on either plate is Q =CV =(2.0 ×10⁻⁶) ×5 =10 ×10⁻⁶ C =10 μC. The two plates carry equal and opposite charges.

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1992 · Question 40

For resistive devices with the same proportional protection margin, which has the smallest operating current and therefore needs the lowest fuse current rating?

  1. 60 W, 240 V
  2. 60 W, 40 V
  3. 40 W, 12 V
  4. 40 W, 5 V
Answer and explanation

A: 60 W, 240 V

Operating current is P/V. The four currents are 0.25 A,1.5 A,3.33 A and 8 A. The 60 W,240 V device draws the smallest current and needs the lowest current rating when the same protection margin is used.

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1992 · Question 42

For steady current I through a constant resistance R for time t, the heat produced is

  1. Inversely proportional to the current and the resistance
  2. Directly proportional to the current, resistance and the time.
  3. Inversely proportional to the square of the resistance, current and the time.
  4. Directly proportional to the square of the current, the resistance and the time.
Answer and explanation

D: Directly proportional to the square of the current, the resistance and the time.

Joule heating is H =I²Rt for a steady current through a constant resistance. Heat is proportional to current squared, resistance and elapsed time.

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1992 · Question 44

A galvanometer has resistance 10 Ω and full-scale current 0.05 A. What added resistance converts it into a 100 V voltmeter, and how is it connected?

  1. 20000 Ω in parallel
  2. 19990 Ω in series
  3. 1990 Ω in series
  4. 100 Ω in series
Answer and explanation

C: 1990 Ω in series

The total required resistance is V/I =100/0.05 =2000 Ω. Subtracting the galvanometer’s 10 Ω gives R =1990 Ω. It is connected in series to limit the current through the meter.

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1992 · Question 45

The units of impedance, RMS voltage and resonance frequency are respectively

  1. Volt, ampere and hertz
  2. Ohm, volt and hertz
  3. Watt, ohm and radian
  4. Ohm, hertz and joule.
Answer and explanation

B: Ohm, volt and hertz

Impedance is voltage divided by current, so its unit is the ohm. RMS voltage is measured in volts, and resonance frequency in hertz, or cycles per second.

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1992 · Question 46

For a sinusoidal alternating current with peak I₀, which relation gives its RMS current Iᵣₘₛ?

  1. I₀ = Iᵣₘₛ/√2
  2. Iᵣₘₛ = I₀/√2
  3. Iᵣₘₛ = √2/I₀
  4. I₀ = √2/Iᵣₘₛ
Answer and explanation

B: Iᵣₘₛ = I₀/√2

For sinusoidal current, the mean of sin² over a cycle is 1/2. Thus the mean square current is I₀²/2, and its square root is Iᵣₘₛ =I₀/√2.

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1992 · Question 48

In the ordinary photoelectric effect, the threshold frequency depends on the

  1. Intensity of incident light
  2. Frequency of incident light
  3. Material of the photocathode
  4. Collecting potential difference between cathode and anode
Answer and explanation

C: Material of the photocathode

The threshold frequency is f₀ =φ/h, whereφ is the photocathode’s work function. It is therefore determined by the emitting material and its surface condition.

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1992 · Question 49

After three half-lives, what fraction of the original radioactive isotope has decayed?

  1. 1/8
  2. 1/3
  3. 2/3
  4. 7/8
Answer and explanation

D: 7/8

After three half-lives, the fraction remaining is(1/2)³ =1/8. The fraction decayed is 1 −1/8 =7/8.

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1991 · Question 4

An object moves with uniform speed round a circle. Its acceleration has

  1. Constant magnitude and constant direction.
  2. Constant magnitude and varying direction.
  3. Varying magnitude and constant direction
  4. Varying magnitude and varying direction.
Answer and explanation

B: Constant magnitude and varying direction.

Centripetal acceleration has magnitude v²/r. Both speed and radius are constant, so this magnitude stays constant. Its direction continually changes as it points from the moving object toward the centre.

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1991 · Question 10

A 20 kg load is pulled at constant speed along a plane inclined at 30° to the horizontal. If the plane’s efficiency is 75%, find the pulling force parallel to the plane to one decimal place. Use g = 10 m/s².

  1. 13.3 N
  2. 73.5 N
  3. 133.3 N
  4. 533.2 N
Answer and explanation

C: 133.3 N

Efficiency is useful work divided by input work. For motion through distance s along the slope, 0.75 = mg(s sin 30°)/(Fs). Thus F = 20 × 10 × 0.5/0.75 = 133.3 N to one decimal place.

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1991 · Question 11

The spiral spring of a spring balance is 25.0cm long when 5N hangs on it and 30.0cm long, when the weight is 10N. What is the length of the spring if the weight is 3N assuming Hooke’s Law is obeyed?

  1. 15.0 cm
  2. 17.0 cm
  3. 20.0 cm
  4. 23.0cm
Answer and explanation

D: 23.0cm

An extra 5 N extends the spring by 5 cm, giving compliance 1 cm/N. Its unloaded length is 25 − 5 = 20 cm. With 3 N attached, its length is 20 + 3 = 23 cm.

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1991 · Question 12

A stone gives an apparent mass reading of 15.0 g when fully immersed in water and 10.0 g when fully immersed in a liquid of relative density 2.0. Neglect air buoyancy. Find its mass in air.

  1. 5.0g
  2. 12.0g
  3. 20.0g
  4. 25.0g
Answer and explanation

C: 20.0g

Let b be the mass-equivalent buoyancy in water and m the true mass. Then m − b = 15 g and m − 2b = 10 g. Subtracting gives b = 5 g, so m = 20 g.

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1991 · Question 14

In which of the following is surface tension important?

  1. The floating of a ship in water
  2. The floating of a dry needle in water
  3. The floating of a balloon in air
  4. The diffusion of a sugar solution across membrane.
Answer and explanation

B: The floating of a dry needle in water

Surface tension can support a carefully placed dry needle at the water surface. A ship and a balloon are mainly supported by buoyancy, while membrane diffusion is driven by concentration differences.

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1991 · Question 17

At normal atmospheric pressure, how much more heat is released by 4 kg of steam at 100 °C than by 4 kg of water at 100 °C when each ends as water at 80 °C? Use latent heat 2260000 J/kg and water specific heat 4200 J/(kg·K).

  1. 4,200J
  2. 2,260,000J
  3. 9,040,000J
  4. 9,380,000J
Answer and explanation

C: 9,040,000J

Both samples release 4 × 4200 × 20 = 336000 J as water cools from 100 °C to 80 °C. The steam also releases 4 × 2260000 = 9040000 J on condensing. That latent heat is the difference.

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1991 · Question 19

How long does a 750 W heater take to raise 1 kg of water from 20 °C to 50 °C, neglecting heat losses? Use specific heat capacity 4200 J/(kg·K).

  1. 84s
  2. 112s
  3. 168s
  4. 280s
Answer and explanation

C: 168s

Required heat is mcΔT = 1 × 4200 × (50 − 20) = 126000 J. At 750 J/s, the heater needs 126000/750 = 168 s if no heat is lost.

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1991 · Question 20

For a pure liquid in equilibrium with its vapour, the saturated vapour pressure increases as the

  1. Volume of the liquid increases at fixed temperature
  2. Volume of the liquid decreases at fixed temperature, with liquid still present
  3. Temperature of the liquid increases
  4. Temperature of the liquid decreases
Answer and explanation

C: Temperature of the liquid increases

Saturated vapour pressure rises with temperature. Warmer liquid molecules have greater energy, and equilibrium is reached at a higher vapour pressure. At a fixed temperature it does not depend on the liquid amount while both phases remain.

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1991 · Question 21

The absolute temperature of a perfect gas is proportional to the average

  1. Potential energy of the molecules
  2. Separation between the molecules
  3. Translational kinetic energy of the molecules
  4. Velocity of the molecules
Answer and explanation

C: Translational kinetic energy of the molecules

For an ideal gas, the mean translational kinetic energy per molecule is 3kT/2. It is therefore directly proportional to the absolute temperature T.

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1991 · Question 24

Which statement is true of light waves and sound waves in air?

  1. They both transmit energy
  2. They both need a material medium for propagation
  3. They are both transverse waves
  4. Their speeds in air are equal
Answer and explanation

A: They both transmit energy

Both light and sound transfer energy. Light can travel through vacuum, while sound needs matter. In air, sound is longitudinal and much slower than light.

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1991 · Question 25

The image in pin-hole camera is

  1. Erect and formed by refraction through a lens
  2. Virtual and formed by dispersion
  3. Erect and gets sharper as the hole becomes larger
  4. Inverted and formed by the light from each point traveling in a straight line.
Answer and explanation

D: Inverted and formed by the light from each point traveling in a straight line.

Rays from the top of an object pass through the small hole to the bottom of the screen, and rays from the bottom reach the top. Straight-line propagation therefore produces an inverted real image.

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1991 · Question 26

A plane mirror is rotated through a small angle Q in the plane of incidence while the incident ray remains fixed. Through what angle does the reflected ray rotate?

  1. ½Q
  2. Q
  3. 2Q
  4. 3Q
Answer and explanation

C: 2Q

With the incident ray fixed, rotating the mirror also rotates its normal by Q. The equal-angle reflection law makes the reflected direction change by twice that angle, or 2Q.

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1991 · Question 28

In a ray diagram for a thin converging lens, a ray that is not parallel to the optic axis but passes through the optic center will

  1. Pass through undeviated
  2. Pass through the center of curvature after refraction
  3. Emerge parallel to the principal axis
  4. Pass through the principal focus after refraction.
Answer and explanation

A: Pass through undeviated

In the thin-lens approximation, a ray through the optical centre is treated as undeviated. The small lateral displacement through a real lens is neglected in the ray diagram.

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1991 · Question 29

Which of the following correctly describes the image of an object, 4cm from a diverging lens of focal length –12cm?

  1. The image is virtual, 3cm in front of the lens
  2. The image is real, 6cm behind the lens
  3. The image is virtual, 6cm in front of the lens
  4. The image is real, 3cm in front of the lens.
Answer and explanation

A: The image is virtual, 3cm in front of the lens

Using 1/f = 1/u + 1/v gives 1/v = −1/12 − 1/4 = −1/3, so v = −3 cm. The negative image distance means a virtual image on the same side as the object.

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1991 · Question 30

Two tuning forks of frequencies 256Hz and 260 Hz are sounded close to each other. What is the frequency of the beats produced?

  1. 2 Hz
  2. 4 Hz
  3. 8 Hz
  4. 258 Hz
Answer and explanation

B: 4 Hz

Beats arise from alternating reinforcement and cancellation of nearby frequencies. Their frequency is the absolute difference: |260 − 256| = 4 Hz.

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1991 · Question 33

Which of the following statements is CORRECT about the earth’s magnetic field?

  1. The angle of dip is the angle which a free suspended magnet makes with the vertical
  2. The angle of declination is the angle between the magnetic meridian and the geographic meridian
  3. The angle of declination is the angle which a magnetic compass makes with the magnetic meridian.
  4. The angle of inclination is the difference between the angle of dip and the angle of declination.
Answer and explanation

B: The angle of declination is the angle between the magnetic meridian and the geographic meridian

Magnetic declination is the horizontal angle between geographic north and magnetic north. Dip, or inclination, is instead the angle of the magnetic field relative to the horizontal.

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1991 · Question 36

The function of the system of granulated carbon mixed with manganese (IV) oxide in a Leclanche cell is to

  1. Increase the emf of the cell to 2.0 V
  2. Prevent local action in the cell
  3. Prevent polarization in the cell
  4. Make the cell black and hence a good radiator
Answer and explanation

C: Prevent polarization in the cell

Manganese(IV) oxide is reduced in the cell’s cathode reaction and serves as the depolarizer. Carbon improves electrical conduction in the mixture, helping the cell deliver current.

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1991 · Question 41

A resistive device dissipates 1500 W and has resistance 375 Ω. What current does it draw?

  1. 0.10 A
  2. 2.00 A
  3. 4.00 A
  4. 77.5 A.
Answer and explanation

B: 2.00 A

For a resistive device, P = I²R. Hence I = √(P/R) = √(1500/375) = √4 = 2.00 A.

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1991 · Question 42

To convert an alternating current dynamo into a direct current dynamo, the

  1. Number of turns in the coil is increased
  2. Strength of the field magnet is increased
  3. Slip rings are replaced with a split-ring commutator
  4. Coil is wound on a soft-iron armature
Answer and explanation

C: Slip rings are replaced with a split-ring commutator

A split-ring commutator reverses the coil’s connection to the external circuit every half-turn. The external current then flows in one direction, giving pulsating direct current rather than alternating current.

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1991 · Question 44

The electrochemical equivalent of platinum is 5.0 × 10⁻⁷ kg/C. How long must a 100 A current flow to deposit 1.0 kg of platinum, to one decimal place in hours?

  1. 5.6 hours
  2. 56 hours
  3. 1.4 × 10⁴ hours
  4. 2.0 × 10⁴ hours
Answer and explanation

A: 5.6 hours

Using m = ZIt, time is 1/(5.0 × 10⁻⁷ × 100) = 20000 s. Dividing by 3600 gives 5.56 hours, or 5.6 hours to one decimal place.

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1991 · Question 45

Which statements are true of isotopes of an element? I. Their neutral atoms have the same electron configuration and very similar chemical properties. II. They can be separated using differences in physical properties such as mass. III. Their nuclei have the same number of protons.

  1. I and II only
  2. I and III only
  3. II and III only
  4. I, II and III.
Answer and explanation

D: I, II and III.

Isotopes have the same proton number. Their neutral atoms have the same electron configuration and very similar chemistry. Their different masses allow separation by physical methods such as mass separation.

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1991 · Question 47

A 4.0 g sample of a radioactive isotope has a half-life of 10 days. How long does it take for 3.5 g of the original isotope to decay?

  1. 1¼ days
  2. 8¾ days
  3. 30 days
  4. 80 days.
Answer and explanation

C: 30 days

If 3.5 g decays,0.5 g of the original radioactive isotope remains. The sequence is 4 →2 →1 →0.5 g: three half-lives. Therefore the time is 3 ×10 =30 days.

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1991 · Question 48

In the energy-releasing proton-proton fusion chain, four protons, each of rest mass Mp, are converted into a helium nucleus X of rest mass Mx, along with other reaction products. Which relation is correct?

  1. 4 Mp > Mx
  2. 4 Mp = Mx
  3. 4 Mp < Mx
  4. Mp = Mx
Answer and explanation

A: 4 Mp > Mx

The proton-proton fusion chain produces a helium nucleus with less rest mass than the four initial protons. The rest-mass difference supplies the released energy and other reaction products, so 4 Mp > Mx.

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1991 · Question 49

Which statements are true for alpha decay? I. Mass number decreases by four. II. Atomic number decreases by two. III. Mass number does not change.

  1. I and II only
  2. II and III only
  3. I and III only
  4. I, II and III
Answer and explanation

A: I and II only

An alpha particle contains two protons and two neutrons. Its emission reduces the parent’s mass number by 4 and atomic number by 2. Thus I and II are true, while III is false.

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1990 · Question 2

Which of the following is a fundamental unit?

  1. Newton
  2. Watt
  3. Joule
  4. Second
Answer and explanation

D: Second

The second is the SI base unit of time. Newton, watt and joule are derived units built from kilogram, metre and second.

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1990 · Question 9

An engine supplies useful mechanical power P to keep a vehicle moving at constant speed v. What driving force does it provide?

  1. P/v
  2. v/2
  3. Pv
  4. P/v²
Answer and explanation

A: P/v

Mechanical power for a force along the direction of motion is P = Fv. Dividing by speed gives the engine’s driving force F = P/v.

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1990 · Question 13

What liquid-column height supports atmospheric pressure 102000 N/m² if liquid density is 2600 kg/m³ and g = 10 m/s²? Give the answer to two decimal places.

  1. 0.75m
  2. 0.76m
  3. 3.92m
  4. 39.23m.
Answer and explanation

C: 3.92m

Hydrostatic pressure is p = ρgh. Thus h = 102000/(2600 × 10) = 3.923… m, or 3.92 m to two decimal places.

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1990 · Question 15

A platinum wire has resistance 0.75 Ω at 0 °C and 1.05 Ω at 100 °C. Assuming linear variation, find its temperature when resistance is 0.90 Ω.

  1. 43.0 °C
  2. 50.0 °C
  3. 69.9 °C
  4. 87.0 °C
Answer and explanation

B: 50.0 °C

The 0–100 °C resistance change is 1.05 − 0.75 = 0.30 Ω. The measured rise is 0.90 − 0.75 = 0.15 Ω, half the interval. Temperature is therefore 50.0 °C.

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1990 · Question 17

A fixed amount of gas is cooled at constant volume without condensation. Its pressure decreases because its molecules

  1. Collide less frequently with the walls of the container.
  2. Have the same average kinetic energy
  3. Break up into smaller molecules
  4. Decrease in number.
Answer and explanation

A: Collide less frequently with the walls of the container.

Cooling lowers the molecules’ average kinetic energy and speed. At fixed volume they strike the walls less often and with less momentum change per collision, reducing the gas pressure.

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1990 · Question 18

A 1 kg copper block at 100 °C is placed on ice at 0 °C. Neglect heat loss. Find the mass melted to the nearest gram, using copper’s specific heat capacity 400 J/(kg·K) and ice’s latent heat of fusion 333 × 10³ J/kg.

  1. 60g
  2. 67g
  3. 120g
  4. 133g
Answer and explanation

C: 120g

The copper loses Q = mcΔT = 1 × 400 × 100 = 40000 J. This melts ice of mass Q/L = 40000/333000 = 0.12012… kg, or 120 g to the nearest gram.

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1990 · Question 19

At external pressure 750 mmHg, what change is needed to make pure water boil at 100 °C?

  1. Increase the external pressure
  2. Reduce the external pressure
  3. Heat more rapidly at the same pressure
  4. Reduce the external pressure by a quarter
Answer and explanation

A: Increase the external pressure

Pure water boils near 100 °C at about 760 mmHg. At 750 mmHg it boils slightly below 100 °C. Raising the external pressure to about 760 mmHg raises the boiling point to 100 °C.

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1990 · Question 20

In ordinary heat-transfer experiments, which statements are correct? I. Land and sea breezes are natural convection currents. II. Convection occurs in liquids or gases, rather than solids retaining their fixed shape. III. The vacuum gap in a thermos flask prevents heat transfer by convection only.

  1. I and II only
  2. II and III only
  3. I and III only
  4. I, II and III.
Answer and explanation

A: I and II only

Land and sea breezes arise from natural convection. In ordinary heat-transfer experiments, convection is bulk motion of a liquid or gas. A vacuum suppresses both conduction and convection across the gap, so III is false.

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1990 · Question 23

Geometrical shadows and eclipses result primarily from the

  1. Refraction of light
  2. Rectilinear propagation of light
  3. Diffraction of light
  4. Reflection of light
Answer and explanation

B: Rectilinear propagation of light

In a uniform medium, light travels approximately in straight lines. An opaque object blocks those paths and produces a shadow; an eclipse occurs when a celestial body blocks the light reaching another body or observer.

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1990 · Question 24

An object 3 cm high is placed vertically 10 cm in front of a concave mirror. Its image is 40 cm from the mirror. Find the magnitude of the image height.

  1. 0.75 cm
  2. 4.00 cm
  3. 8.00 cm
  4. 12.00 cm
Answer and explanation

D: 12.00 cm

The magnitude of magnification is image distance divided by object distance: 40/10 = 4. Therefore the image height has magnitude 4 × 3 = 12 cm.

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1990 · Question 27

What must be the distance between an object and a converging lens of focal length 20cm to produce an erect image two times the object height?

  1. 20cm
  2. 15cm
  3. 10cm
  4. 5cm
Answer and explanation

C: 10cm

An erect image from a converging lens is virtual: v = −2u. Substituting in 1/f = 1/u + 1/v gives 1/20 = 1/(2u). Hence u = 10 cm, inside the focal length.

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1990 · Question 29

In an uncorrected short-sighted eye, light rays from a point on a very distant object are focused

  1. In front of the retina
  2. On the retina by a converging lens
  3. Behind the retina by a diverging lens
  4. In front of the retina a distance 2F from the lens.
Answer and explanation

A: In front of the retina

In an uncorrected short-sighted eye, parallel rays from a distant object converge before reaching the retina. A diverging corrective lens reduces the eye system’s convergence so the focus moves back onto the retina.

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1990 · Question 30

Under white illumination, which primary colour does an ideal magenta surface absorb?

  1. Red and blue
  2. Green only
  3. Red and green
  4. Red only.
Answer and explanation

B: Green only

An ideal magenta surface reflects red and blue light and absorbs green. Under white illumination, the reflected red and blue combine to appear magenta.

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1990 · Question 31

In a resonance tube closed at one end, the first resonant air-column length is 20 cm for a 480 Hz tuning fork. Neglect end correction and find the speed of sound.

  1. 96 m/s
  2. 255 m/s
  3. 340 m/s
  4. 384 m/s
Answer and explanation

D: 384 m/s

At the first resonance of a tube closed at one end, L = λ/4. Thus λ = 4 × 0.20 = 0.80 m and v = fλ = 480 × 0.80 = 384 m/s.

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1990 · Question 33

An organ pipe closed at one end is 80 cm long. Neglect end correction. Find its fundamental frequency to the nearest hertz if sound speed is 340 m/s.

  1. 106 Hz
  2. 213 Hz
  3. 318 Hz
  4. 425 Hz
Answer and explanation

A: 106 Hz

For the fundamental of a pipe closed at one end, λ = 4L = 3.20 m. Frequency is 340/3.20 = 106.25 Hz, or 106 Hz to the nearest hertz.

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1990 · Question 35

An insulated body is at rest in electrostatic equilibrium with positive net charge. Which statements are true? I. Positive charge exceeds negative charge. II. It creates an electric field. III. It stores electrostatic energy relative to its discharged state. IV. It carries a steady electric current.

  1. I and IV only
  2. I and II only
  3. I, II and III only
  4. I, II, III and IV
Answer and explanation

C: I, II and III only

Positive net charge means there is more positive than negative charge, usually through an electron deficit. The charged body creates a field and stores electrostatic energy. At rest in electrostatic equilibrium, it carries no steady current.

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1990 · Question 36

Which of the following is a vector?

  1. Electric charge
  2. Electric field
  3. Electric potential difference
  4. Electric capacitance.
Answer and explanation

B: Electric field

Electric field is force per unit positive test charge, so it has both magnitude and direction. Electric charge, potential difference and capacitance are scalars.

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1990 · Question 37

Three identical cells, each of emf 1.5 V and internal resistance 1.0 Ω, are connected in parallel with matching polarity across a 2.67 Ω load. Find the load current to two decimal places.

  1. 0.26A
  2. 0.41A
  3. 0.50A
  4. 0.79A.
Answer and explanation

C: 0.50A

Identical cells in parallel retain emf 1.5 V and have internal resistance 1/3 Ω. The load current is 1.5/(2.67 + 1/3) = 0.4994… A, or 0.50 A to two decimal places.

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1990 · Question 38

In a uniform metre bridge, a 2.0 Ω standard resistor occupies the gap beside the 0 cm end. The balance point is 55.0 cm from that end. Find the resistance in the other gap to two decimal places.

  1. 1.10 Ohms
  2. 1.64 Ohms
  3. 2.44 Ohms
  4. 27.50 Ohms
Answer and explanation

B: 1.64 Ohms

For a uniform metre bridge, resistance ratio equals wire-length ratio at balance. With 2.0 Ω beside the 0 cm end, 2.0/R = 55/45. Thus R = 2.0 × 45/55 = 1.64 Ω to two decimal places.

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1990 · Question 39

The energy supplied by an electrical source per unit positive charge for a complete circuit is its

  1. Kinetic energy
  2. Potential difference
  3. Electromotive force
  4. Electrical energy
Answer and explanation

C: Electromotive force

Emf is the energy supplied by a source per unit charge passing through it. That energy is transferred around the complete circuit, including the source’s internal resistance. Its unit is the volt, or joule per coulomb.

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1990 · Question 41

Which of the following is an essential physical property of the wires used for making fuses?

  1. Low density
  2. High thermal conductivity
  3. Low electrical resistivity
  4. Low melting point.
Answer and explanation

D: Low melting point.

A fuse element must melt when excessive current heats it sufficiently. Melting opens the circuit and stops the sustained overcurrent. A suitably low melting point supports this protective action.

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1990 · Question 43

For the same transmitted power, using a higher voltage reduces energy lost in the transmission wires through

  1. Heat dissipation
  2. Production of eddy currents
  3. Excessive current discharged
  4. Excessive voltage discharged.
Answer and explanation

A: Heat dissipation

For the same transmitted power, increasing voltage reduces current because P = VI. Heating loss in the wires is I²R, so lowering current reduces heat dissipation.

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1990 · Question 45

A galvanometer with full-scale current 10 mA and coil resistance 30 Ω is converted to a 10 A ammeter. Which approximate resistor and connection are required?

  1. 0.03 ohms series resistor
  2. 0.03 ohms shunt resistor
  3. 9.99 ohms shunt resistor
  4. 9.99 ohms series resistor
Answer and explanation

B: 0.03 ohms shunt resistor

The full-scale coil voltage is 0.010 × 30 = 0.30 V. The shunt carries 10 − 0.010 = 9.99 A, so its resistance is 0.30/9.99 ≈ 0.03 Ω. It must be parallel to the coil.

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1990 · Question 47

What precaution should a manufacturer take to ensure that energy loss in a transformer is minimized?

  1. Make the windings from high-resistance wire
  2. Make the magnetic core from thin, electrically insulated metal sheets
  3. Use no magnetic material in the core
  4. Minimize flux linking the primary and secondary coils
Answer and explanation

B: Make the magnetic core from thin, electrically insulated metal sheets

A transformer core made from thin, electrically insulated metal laminations restricts large circulating eddy currents. This reduces unwanted heating in the core.

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1990 · Question 50

A photoemissive photocell works on the principle of

  1. A voltaic cell
  2. Emission of electrons by incident radiation
  3. Emission of protons by incident electrons
  4. A photographic plate
Answer and explanation

B: Emission of electrons by incident radiation

A photoemissive cell uses incident photons to release electrons from a photosensitive surface. Those electrons can be collected to produce a measurable current.

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1989 · Question 1

Which of the following is a set of vectors?

  1. Force, mass and moment of force
  2. Acceleration, velocity and moment of force
  3. Mass, weight and density
  4. Mass, volume and density
Answer and explanation

B: Acceleration, velocity and moment of force

Acceleration and velocity have magnitude and direction. Moment of force, or torque, is also a vector with direction given by the right-hand rule. Mass, volume and density are scalars.

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1989 · Question 2

The magnitude of the resultant of two mutually perpendicular forces, F1 and F2 is 13N. If the magnitude of F1 is 5N, what is the magnitude of F2?

  1. 2.6 N
  2. 8.0 N
  3. 12.0 N
  4. 18.0 N
Answer and explanation

C: 12.0 N

Perpendicular forces obey R² = F₁² + F₂². Therefore F₂ = √(13² − 5²) = √144 = 12 N.

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1989 · Question 3

A velocity–time graph contains points (5 s, 10 m/s) and (20 s, 20 m/s). Find the mean acceleration between them to two decimal places.

  1. 0.67 m/s²
  2. 0.83 m/s²
  3. 1.50 m/s²
  4. 2.00 m/s²
Answer and explanation

A: 0.67 m/s²

Mean acceleration is change in velocity divided by elapsed time: (20 − 10)/(20 − 5) = 10/15 = 0.67 m/s² to two decimal places.

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1989 · Question 11

Which of the following devices are used to measure pressure? I Aneroid barometer II Hydrometer III Hygrometer IV Manometer.

  1. I and III
  2. II and III
  3. III and IV
  4. I and IV.
Answer and explanation

D: I and IV.

An aneroid barometer measures atmospheric pressure and a manometer measures pressure or pressure difference. A hydrometer measures liquid density, while a hygrometer measures humidity.

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1989 · Question 16

An electric heater melts 1.5 kg of ice initially at 0 °C. It draws 20 A from a 12 V battery. Assuming all its heat melts the ice, find the time taken. Use specific latent heat of fusion 336 × 10³ J/kg.

  1. 76.0 min
  2. 35.0 min
  3. 21.0 min
  4. 2.9 min.
Answer and explanation

B: 35.0 min

Heat needed is mL = 1.5 × 336000 = 504000 J. Heater power is VI = 12 × 20 = 240 W. Time = 504000/240 = 2100 s = 35.0 min.

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1989 · Question 17

In the kinetic theory of an ideal gas, absolute temperature is a

  1. Form of energy proportional to the total kinetic energy of its molecules
  2. Form of energy proportional to the average kinetic energy of its molecules
  3. Physical property proportional to the total kinetic energy of its molecules
  4. Physical property proportional to the average translational kinetic energy of its molecules
Answer and explanation

D: Physical property proportional to the average translational kinetic energy of its molecules

Absolute temperature is a physical property, not a quantity of energy. For an ideal gas, the mean translational kinetic energy per molecule is 3kT/2, so it is proportional to kelvin temperature.

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1989 · Question 22

In a sound wave in air, the adjacent rarefactions and compressions are separated by a distance of 17cm. If the velocity of the sound wave is 340ms-1, determine the frequency.

  1. 10 Hz
  2. 20 Hz
  3. 1 000 Hz
  4. 5 780 Hz
Answer and explanation

C: 1 000 Hz

A compression and the adjacent rarefaction are half a wavelength apart. Thus λ = 2 × 17 cm = 0.34 m. Frequency f = v/λ = 340/0.34 = 1000 Hz.

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1989 · Question 24

Light of free-space wavelength 5000 × 10⁻⁸ cm enters glass of refractive index 1.5. Find its wavelength in glass, rounding the coefficient of 10⁻⁸ cm to the nearest integer.

  1. 3333 × 10⁻⁸ cm
  2. 5000 × 10⁻⁸ cm
  3. 6666 × 10⁻⁸ cm
  4. 7500 × 10⁻⁸ cm
Answer and explanation

A: 3333 × 10⁻⁸ cm

Frequency stays unchanged on entering glass, while speed becomes c/n. Therefore wavelength becomes λ/n = (5000/1.5) × 10⁻⁸ cm ≈ 3333 × 10⁻⁸ cm.

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1989 · Question 26

The magnification of the image of an object placed in front of a convex mirror is 1/3. If the radius of curvature of the mirror is 24cm, what is the distance between the object and its image?

  1. 8 cm
  2. 16 cm
  3. 24 cm
  4. 32 cm
Answer and explanation

D: 32 cm

For a convex mirror, f = −12 cm and v = −u/3. The mirror equation gives −1/12 = 1/u − 3/u = −2/u, so u = 24 cm and v = −8 cm. Their separation is 24 + 8 = 32 cm.

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1989 · Question 27

In a common three-mirror kaleidoscope with an equilateral triangular cross-section, adjacent plane mirrors are placed

  1. At 60°
  2. Parallel to one another
  3. Perpendicular to one another
  4. At 45°
Answer and explanation

A: At 60°

A common three-mirror kaleidoscope uses mirrors forming an equilateral triangular tube. Adjacent mirrors meet at 60°, creating repeated symmetric images by reflection.

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1989 · Question 29

Under white light, an ideal yellow card is viewed through an ideal blue filter. What colour does the card appear?

  1. Black
  2. Green
  3. Red
  4. White
Answer and explanation

A: Black

In the ideal colour model, a yellow card reflects red and green light. A blue filter transmits blue and blocks red and green, leaving essentially no light from the card, so it appears black.

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1989 · Question 30

Dispersion of light by a glass prism is due to the

  1. Different hidden colours of the glass
  2. Different speeds of the various colours in glass
  3. Defects in the glass
  4. High density of glass.
Answer and explanation

B: Different speeds of the various colours in glass

Glass has a refractive index that depends on wavelength. Different colours therefore travel at different speeds in it and refract by different amounts, separating the white light.

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1989 · Question 31

Which of the following pairs is NOT part of the electromagnetic spectrum? I Radio waves II Beta rays III Gamma rays IV Alpha rays

  1. I and II
  2. III and IV
  3. I and III
  4. II and IV.
Answer and explanation

D: II and IV.

Alpha radiation consists of helium nuclei and beta radiation of electrons or positrons. They are particles with mass. Radio waves and gamma rays are electromagnetic radiation.

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1989 · Question 32

Two insulated conducting spheres of different sizes carry opposite charges. They are connected by a metal wire. Charge flows until both spheres

  1. Carry the same magnitude and sign of charge.
  2. Are at the same potential.
  3. Are at the same temperature.
  4. Are of the same size.
Answer and explanation

B: Are at the same potential.

Charges redistribute through the connecting conductor until there is no potential difference between the spheres. At electrostatic equilibrium the connected conductor is equipotential.

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1989 · Question 35

A uniform wire 5 m long has cross-sectional area 0.2 × 10⁻⁶ m² and resistance 0.425 Ω. Find its resistivity.

  1. 1.10 × 10⁻⁶ Ω·m
  2. 4.25 × 10⁻⁶ Ω·m
  3. 2.40 × 10⁻⁷ Ω·m
  4. 1.70 × 10⁻⁸ Ω·m
Answer and explanation

D: 1.70 × 10⁻⁸ Ω·m

For a uniform wire R = ρL/A. Thus ρ = RA/L = 0.425 × (0.2 × 10⁻⁶)/5 = 1.70 × 10⁻⁸ Ω·m.

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1989 · Question 36

Resistors of 250 Ω, 500 Ω and 1 kΩ are connected in series across a 6 V battery. Find the voltage across the 250 Ω resistor to two decimal places.

  1. 0.20V
  2. 0.86V
  3. 1.71V
  4. 3.43V.
Answer and explanation

B: 0.86V

Series resistance is 250 + 500 + 1000 = 1750 Ω. The 250 Ω resistor gets the fraction 250/1750 of the voltage: 6 × 250/1750 = 0.86 V to two decimal places.

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1989 · Question 43

An ammeter of resistance 0.1 Ω has full-scale current 50 mA. A 0.0111 Ω shunt is connected across it. Find the new full-scale total current to the nearest milliampere.

  1. 400 mA
  2. 450 mA
  3. 500 mA
  4. 550 mA.
Answer and explanation

C: 500 mA

At full scale, the meter voltage is 0.050 × 0.1 = 0.005 V. The shunt carries 0.005/0.0111 ≈ 0.45045 A. Adding the meter’s 0.050 A gives 0.50045 A, or 500 mA to the nearest milliampere.

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1989 · Question 44

The electrochemical equivalent of silver is 0.0012 g/C. What steady current deposits 36.0 g in 5.0 minutes?

  1. 6000 A
  2. 100 A
  3. 10 A
  4. 1 A
Answer and explanation

B: 100 A

Deposited mass is m = ZIt. With time 5 × 60 = 300 s, I = 36/(0.0012 × 300) = 100 A.

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1989 · Question 47

For a fixed metal surface in the ordinary single-photon photoelectric effect, the maximum kinetic energy of an emitted electron depends on the

  1. Intensity of the radiation
  2. Source of the radiation
  3. Wavelength of the radiation
  4. Detection device for the electron.
Answer and explanation

C: Wavelength of the radiation

For a fixed metal in the ordinary photoelectric effect, Kmax = hc/λ − φ. The wavelength sets photon energy and therefore the maximum emitted-electron energy above the work function.

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1988 · Question 2

Which SI units are correctly matched? I. N for force. II. N·m⁻¹ for torque. III. W for power. IV. kg·m·s⁻² for momentum.

  1. I and II only
  2. I. II and III only
  3. I, II and IV only
  4. I and III only.
Answer and explanation

D: I and III only.

Force is measured in newtons and power in watts, so I and III are correct. Torque is measured in N·m, not N/m. Momentum is kg·m/s, not kg·m/s².

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1988 · Question 4

Two perpendicular forces have resultant 100 N. One force makes 30° with the resultant. Find that force’s magnitude to one decimal place.

  1. 8.66 N
  2. 50.0 N
  3. 57.7 N
  4. 86.6 N
Answer and explanation

D: 86.6 N

The force making 30° with the resultant is the adjacent component: F = R cos 30° = 100 × √3/2 = 86.6 N to one decimal place.

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1988 · Question 5

Which of the following quantities are scalars? I Electrical potential II Torque III Momentum IV Kinetic energy

  1. II and III only
  2. I and II only
  3. III and IV only
  4. I and IV only
Answer and explanation

D: I and IV only

Electric potential and kinetic energy are scalars. Torque and momentum are vectors, so the scalar quantities are I and IV.

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1988 · Question 7

A footballer applies an average force of 30.0 N to a stationary ball for 0.05 s. If the ball’s mass is 0.075 kg, what is its speed as it moves off?

  1. 4.50m s-1
  2. 11.25m s-1
  3. 20.00m s-1
  4. 45.00m s-1
Answer and explanation

C: 20.00m s-1

Impulse equals change in momentum. Starting from rest, mv = Ft = 30.0 × 0.05 = 1.5 N·s. Hence v = 1.5/0.075 = 20.0 m/s.

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1988 · Question 8

A 20-tooth gear drives a 60-tooth gear. If the smaller gear rotates at 120 rev/s, what is the angular speed of the larger gear?

  1. 3 rev s-1
  2. 40 rev s-1
  3. 360 rev s –1
  4. 2 400 rev s-1
Answer and explanation

B: 40 rev s-1

Meshing gears pass the same number of teeth per second. Therefore 20 × 120 = 60 × n, giving the larger gear’s speed n = 40 rev/s.

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1988 · Question 11

A 60 kg man climbs through a vertical height of 22 m with useful lifting power 0.25 kW. How long does the climb take? Use g = 10 m/s².

  1. 5.3 s
  2. 34.5 s
  3. 41.6 s
  4. 52.8 s
Answer and explanation

D: 52.8 s

Useful energy for the climb is mgh = 60 × 10 × 22 = 13200 J. At 0.25 kW = 250 W, time = energy/power = 13200/250 = 52.8 s.

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1988 · Question 16

The product PV where P is pressure and V is volume has the same unit as

  1. Force
  2. Power
  3. Energy
  4. Acceleration
Answer and explanation

C: Energy

Pressure × volume has units (N/m²) × m³ = N·m = J. A joule is the SI unit of energy.

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1988 · Question 17

The amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of 10kg of copper by1K is its

  1. Specific heat capacity
  2. Heat capacity
  3. Latent heat
  4. Internal heat.
Answer and explanation

B: Heat capacity

Heat capacity refers to the whole body: C = Q/ΔT. The heat required for this 10 kg piece to rise by 1 K corresponds to its heat capacity. Specific heat capacity is per kilogram.

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1988 · Question 20

Heating one end of a metal rod causes lattice particles at the other end to vibrate more vigorously. Heat has been transferred through the rod by

  1. Radiation
  2. Convection
  3. Conduction
  4. Evaporation.
Answer and explanation

C: Conduction

Conduction transfers thermal energy through the rod without bulk motion of the metal. In metals, mobile electrons and lattice vibrations both contribute to this transfer.

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1988 · Question 21

Which of the following media allow the transmission of sound waves through them? I Air II Liquids III Solids

  1. I and II only
  2. I and III only
  3. II and III only
  4. I, II and III.
Answer and explanation

D: I, II and III.

Sound is a mechanical disturbance that can propagate through gases, liquids and solids. All three provide matter whose particles can pass the disturbance onward.

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1988 · Question 23

Which behaviours can both mechanical and electromagnetic waves exhibit under suitable conditions? I. Diffraction. II. Refraction. III. Interference.

  1. I only
  2. III only
  3. I and III only
  4. I, II and III.
Answer and explanation

D: I, II and III.

Mechanical and electromagnetic waves can diffract around openings, refract when their propagation speed changes, and interfere when they overlap. All three are characteristic wave behaviours.

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1988 · Question 26

In the usual nondispersive ideal-gas model for air of fixed composition, which factor independently affects sound speed? I. Temperature. II. Pressure at fixed temperature. III. Frequency.

  1. I only
  2. II only
  3. I and II only
  4. II and III only.
Answer and explanation

A: I only

For air treated as an ideal gas, sound speed is √(γRT/M). At fixed composition it depends on temperature. Pressure has no independent effect at fixed temperature, and frequency does not enter this model.

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1988 · Question 27

The speed of sound in air at sea-level is 340m s-1 while that of light is 300,000km s-1. How far (to the nearest metre) from the center of thunderstorm is an observer who hears a thunder 2s after a lightning flash?

  1. 170m
  2. 340m
  3. 600m
  4. 680m.
Answer and explanation

D: 680m.

The delay is d/340 − d/(3 × 10⁸) = 2 s. Solving gives d ≈ 680.0008 m, which rounds to 680 m. Neglecting the tiny light travel time gives the same metre-rounded result.

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1988 · Question 29

Two uniform strings of equal length and equal tension sound their fundamental notes in frequency ratio 4:1. What is their corresponding mass ratio?

  1. 2:1
  2. 1:2
  3. 1:4
  4. 1:16
Answer and explanation

D: 1:16

For equal length and tension in the same vibration mode, f is proportional to 1/√m. Thus f₁/f₂ = 4 implies m₁/m₂ = (1/4)² = 1/16.

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1988 · Question 32

An object is placed 10 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. What is the position and nature of the image?

  1. 30 cm behind the mirror, virtual
  2. 6 cm in front of the mirror, real
  3. 6 cm behind the mirror, virtual
  4. 30 cm in front of the mirror, real
Answer and explanation

A: 30 cm behind the mirror, virtual

With real object distance positive, 1/v = 1/15 − 1/10 = −1/30. The image is therefore virtual and lies 30 cm behind the mirror. The object is inside the focal length.

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1988 · Question 34

When white light is dispersed by a spectrometer, the component having the shortest wavelength is

  1. Orange
  2. Green
  3. Violet
  4. Red.
Answer and explanation

C: Violet

Violet is at the short-wavelength end of the visible spectrum. Green, orange and red all have longer wavelengths than violet.

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1988 · Question 35

Which of the following statements is TRUE of ultra- violet, visible and infra-red rays?

  1. They are all electromagnetic waves with the same wavelength
  2. Ultraviolet rays have shorter wavelengths than infrared rays and can produce fluorescence
  3. Infrared rays have shorter wavelengths than visible light and produce a sensation of heat
  4. Wavelengths increase in the order visible, ultraviolet, infrared
Answer and explanation

B: Ultraviolet rays have shorter wavelengths than infrared rays and can produce fluorescence

Ultraviolet has shorter wavelengths than visible light and infrared. It can excite fluorescent materials, which then emit light, often at visible wavelengths.

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1988 · Question 40

Connecting a resistance R across a cell reduces its terminal voltage to two-thirds of its open-circuit emf. What is the cell’s internal resistance?

  1. R/3
  2. R/2
  3. 2R/3
  4. R
Answer and explanation

B: R/2

With external resistance R and internal resistance r, terminal voltage is V = ER/(R + r). Setting V/E = 2/3 gives 3R = 2(R + r), hence r = R/2.

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1988 · Question 44

At the given voltage and power ratings, which instrument draws the highest current?

  1. Electric iron 250V 1kW
  2. Television set 220V 110W
  3. Torch light 6V 30W
  4. Immersion heater 110V 500W
Answer and explanation

C: Torch light 6V 30W

Using I = P/V: iron = 1000/250 = 4 A; television = 110/220 = 0.5 A; torch = 30/6 = 5 A; heater = 500/110 ≈ 4.55 A. The torch draws the highest current.

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1988 · Question 45

Which instruments can directly measure ordinary alternating current without an added rectifier? I. Permanent-magnet moving-coil ammeter. II. Moving-iron ammeter. III. Hot-wire ammeter.

  1. I and II only
  2. II and III only
  3. I and III only
  4. I, II and III.
Answer and explanation

B: II and III only

Moving-iron meters respond to magnetization irrespective of current direction. Hot-wire meters respond to I²R heating. Both can measure AC. An unrectified permanent-magnet moving-coil meter averages opposing torques over an AC cycle.

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1988 · Question 46

The principle of operation of an induction coil is based on

  1. Ohm’s law
  2. Ampere’s law
  3. Faraday’s law
  4. Coulomb’s law.
Answer and explanation

C: Faraday’s law

An induction coil uses a changing current to change magnetic flux through another winding. Faraday’s law relates that changing flux to the induced emf.

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1988 · Question 49

Which notation represents a neutral atom X with 22 electrons and 43 neutrons?

  1. ⁴³₂₂X
  2. ²²₄₃X
  3. ⁶⁵₄₂X
  4. ⁶⁵₂₂X
Answer and explanation

D: ⁶⁵₂₂X

For a neutral atom, 22 electrons mean 22 protons, so atomic number Z = 22. Mass number A = protons + neutrons = 22 + 43 = 65. The notation is ⁶⁵₂₂X.

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1987 · Question 1

Which unit is equivalent to kg·m·s⁻¹?

  1. N·s⁻¹
  2. N·m·s
  3. N·s
  4. J·s⁻¹
Answer and explanation

C: N·s

One newton is kg·m·s⁻². Multiplying by one second gives N·s = kg·m·s⁻¹, the unit of momentum.

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1987 · Question 6

A 4800 kg elevator is supported by a cable whose maximum safe tension is 60000 N. What is the maximum upward acceleration? Take g = 10 m/s².

  1. 2.5 m/s²
  2. 5.0 m/s²
  3. 7.5 m/s²
  4. 10.0 m/s²
Answer and explanation

A: 2.5 m/s²

For upward acceleration, T − mg = ma. At the cable limit, a = 60000/4800 − 10 = 2.5 m/s². Any greater acceleration would exceed the stated tension limit.

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1987 · Question 12

If a beaker is filled with water, it is observed that the surface of the water is not horizontal at the glass-water interface. This behaviour is due to

  1. Friction
  2. Viscosity
  3. Surface tension
  4. Evaporation.
Answer and explanation

C: Surface tension

The curved meniscus results from surface tension together with adhesion between water and glass. Water wets the glass, so its surface rises near the wall.

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1987 · Question 13

The ideal mechanical advantage of a frictionless inclined plane depends on

  1. Its length alone
  2. Its height alone
  3. The product of its length and height
  4. The ratio of its length to its height
Answer and explanation

D: The ratio of its length to its height

For an ideal frictionless inclined plane, effort × length = load × height. Mechanical advantage is load/effort = length/height.

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1987 · Question 16

The 0 °C and 100 °C fixed points of a centigrade thermometer are 20 cm apart. What temperature is indicated when mercury is 4.5 cm above the lower mark?

  1. 22.5 °C
  2. 29.0 °C
  3. 90.0 °C
  4. 100.0 °C
Answer and explanation

A: 22.5 °C

The 20 cm interval represents 100 °C. A rise of 4.5 cm therefore gives T = (4.5/20) × 100 = 22.5 °C.

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1987 · Question 18

A metallic cube has side 5.0 cm at 20 °C and linear expansivity 4.0 × 10⁻⁵ K⁻¹. Using the first-order thermal expansion approximation, find its volume at 120 °C.

  1. 126.50 cm³
  2. 126.25 cm³
  3. 126.00 cm³
  4. 125.00 cm³
Answer and explanation

A: 126.50 cm³

Initial volume is 5³ = 125 cm³. To first order, volume expansivity is 3α, so V = 125[1 + 3(4 × 10⁻⁵)(120 − 20)] = 126.50 cm³.

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1987 · Question 19

Air trapped above a mercury barometer makes it read 73.5 cm when the true height is 75.0 cm. The trapped air volume is 8.0 cm³. At the same temperature, it later reads 74.0 cm and the trapped volume is 6.0 cm³. Find the true barometric height.

  1. 72.0 cm
  2. 74.5 cm
  3. 75.1 cm
  4. 76.0 cm
Answer and explanation

D: 76.0 cm

Initially the trapped air pressure is 75.0 − 73.5 = 1.5 cmHg. At constant temperature, p₂ = 1.5 × 8/6 = 2.0 cmHg. True atmospheric pressure is then 74.0 + 2.0 = 76.0 cmHg.

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1987 · Question 21

Hot water is mixed with three times its mass of water at 10 °C, giving a final temperature of 20 °C. Neglect heat loss. What was the hot water’s initial temperature?

  1. 100 °C
  2. 80 °C
  3. 50 °C
  4. 40 °C
Answer and explanation

C: 50 °C

Neglecting heat loss, hot-water heat loss equals cold-water heat gain: mc(T − 20) = 3mc(20 − 10). Thus T − 20 = 30 and T = 50 °C.

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1987 · Question 23

Calculate the heat required to convert 2 kg of ice at −2 °C to water at 0 °C. The specific heat capacity of ice is 2090 J/(kg·°C), and its specific latent heat of fusion is 333 kJ/kg.

  1. 666 J
  2. 8360 J
  3. 666000 J
  4. 674360 J
Answer and explanation

D: 674360 J

First warm the ice by 2 °C: Q₁ = 2 × 2090 × 2 = 8360 J. Then melt it: Q₂ = 2 × 333000 = 666000 J. Total heat is 674360 J.

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1987 · Question 24

In which of the following are the substances arranged in descending order of their thermal conductivities?

  1. Copper, steel, glass
  2. Steel, copper, glass
  3. Steel, glass, copper
  4. Copper, glass, steel.
Answer and explanation

A: Copper, steel, glass

Copper conducts heat much better than steel, and steel conducts much better than glass. Their descending order of thermal conductivity is copper, steel, glass.

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1987 · Question 25

The vacuum in the Thermos flask helps to reduce heat transfer by

  1. Convection and radiation
  2. Convection and conduction
  3. Conduction and radiation
  4. Radiation only.
Answer and explanation

B: Convection and conduction

The vacuum greatly reduces conduction and convection across the space between the flask walls because there is almost no matter there. Electromagnetic radiation can still cross that space.

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1987 · Question 26

Why is a house with a white-painted roof generally cooler in hot sunshine than an otherwise similar house with a black-painted roof?

  1. Conduction
  2. Convection
  3. Refraction
  4. Reflection.
Answer and explanation

D: Reflection.

A white coating generally reflects more incoming sunlight than a black coating. With less solar energy absorbed, the roof gains less heat under otherwise similar conditions.

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1987 · Question 29

Which instrument is commonly used to produce a nearly pure tone?

  1. Guitar
  2. Vibrating string
  3. Tuning fork
  4. Siren
Answer and explanation

C: Tuning fork

A tuning fork is designed to vibrate mainly at one frequency and gives a nearly pure tone after brief higher-frequency transients fade. Guitar and ordinary string sounds contain strong harmonics.

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1987 · Question 33

An object is placed between two plane mirrors inclined at 90°. How many images are formed?

  1. Five
  2. Four
  3. Three
  4. Two.
Answer and explanation

C: Three

Two plane mirrors at right angles form one image by reflection in each mirror and a third by successive reflections in both. Thus there are three images.

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1987 · Question 34

An object 3.0cm high is placed 60.0cm from a converging lens whose focal length is 20.0cm. Calculate the size of the image formed.

  1. 0.5 cm
  2. 1.5 cm
  3. 2.0 cm
  4. 6.0 cm
Answer and explanation

B: 1.5 cm

The lens formula gives 1/v = 1/20 − 1/60 = 1/30, so v = 30 cm. Magnification magnitude is v/u = 30/60 = 0.5. Image height is 0.5 × 3.0 = 1.5 cm.

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1987 · Question 37

Four lenses are being considered for use as a microscope objective. Which of the following focal lengths is most suitable?

  1. -5mm
  2. +5mm
  3. –5cm
  4. +5cm
Answer and explanation

B: +5mm

A microscope objective uses a converging lens with a short focal length. Positive 5 mm provides stronger convergence than positive 5 cm, making it the suitable choice here.

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1987 · Question 38

At a place with magnetic declination 10°E, a compass reads N40°E. What is the true geographic bearing?

  1. N50°E
  2. N40°E
  3. N30°E
  4. N25°E
Answer and explanation

A: N50°E

Magnetic north is 10° east of true north. A compass direction 40° east of magnetic north is therefore 10° + 40° = 50° east of true north: N50°E.

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1987 · Question 40

Capacitors of 6 μF and 8 μF are in series. What additional capacitor, connected in series with them, gives a total capacitance of 3 μF?

  1. 3 μF
  2. 16 μF
  3. 24 μF
  4. 30 μF
Answer and explanation

C: 24 μF

For series capacitors, reciprocals add: 1/3 = 1/6 + 1/8 + 1/C. Thus 1/C = 1/24 and the additional capacitance is 24 μF.

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1987 · Question 42

An ideal transformer operating with a load has more turns on its secondary than its primary. It

  1. Has a smaller secondary current than primary current
  2. Has greater output power than input power
  3. Is a step-down transformer
  4. Increases the total energy output above its input
Answer and explanation

A: Has a smaller secondary current than primary current

An ideal transformer with more secondary turns steps voltage up. Conservation of power gives VsIs = VpIp, so the secondary current is smaller than the primary current.

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1987 · Question 44

The direction of the magnetic field at a point in the vicinity of a bar magnet is

  1. Always towards the north pole of the magnet
  2. Always away from the south pole of the magnet
  3. Along the line joining the point to the neutral point
  4. In the direction the north pole of a compass needle would point.
Answer and explanation

D: In the direction the north pole of a compass needle would point.

The direction of a magnetic field is defined as the direction in which the north-seeking pole of a small compass points at that location.

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1987 · Question 45

When two parallel wires carry currents in opposite directions, the force on either wire is

  1. Away from the other wire
  2. Zero, because the currents cancel each other
  3. Twice as much as when the currents are in the same direction
  4. Towards the other wire.
Answer and explanation

A: Away from the other wire

Parallel conductors carrying currents in opposite directions repel. Each wire’s magnetic field exerts a force on the current in the other wire, directed away from it.

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1987 · Question 48

Which statement is true of the ordinary single-photon photoelectric effect?

  1. It cannot occur in liquids
  2. The maximum emitted-electron energy is independent of the surface work function
  3. The maximum emitted-electron energy depends on the incident wavelength
  4. At fixed wavelength, greater light intensity necessarily gives greater maximum emitted-electron energy
Answer and explanation

C: The maximum emitted-electron energy depends on the incident wavelength

In the ordinary single-photon photoelectric effect, maximum kinetic energy is Kmax = hc/λ − φ. It depends on wavelength and work function. Increasing intensity at fixed wavelength chiefly increases the number emitted.

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1987 · Question 49

Isotopes are nuclei which have

  1. The same number of neutrons and electrons
  2. Equal number of electrons and protons
  3. The same atomic number but different number of neutrons
  4. The same number of total particles.
Answer and explanation

C: The same atomic number but different number of neutrons

Isotopes have the same atomic number, meaning the same number of protons, but different neutron numbers. Their mass numbers therefore differ.

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1986 · Question 4

Which of the following is a derived unit?

  1. Kilogramme
  2. Metre
  3. Kelvin
  4. Newton
Answer and explanation

D: Newton

The newton is defined as kg·m·s⁻², combining base units to measure force. Kilogram, metre and kelvin are SI base units.

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1986 · Question 5

Two objects, one with three times the mass of the other, are dropped together from the same height. Neglect air resistance. While falling above the ground, they have the same

  1. Momentum
  2. Kinetic energy
  3. Potential energy
  4. Acceleration.
Answer and explanation

D: Acceleration.

Without air resistance, both objects accelerate at g and have the same velocity at each instant. Momentum, kinetic energy and gravitational potential energy also depend on mass, so these differ by a factor of three.

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1986 · Question 9

A uniform metre rule QR is horizontal, with Q at 0 cm and R at 100 cm. It balances on a knife edge 55 cm from R. A 10 g mass hangs at P, 10 cm from Q. What is the mass of the metre rule?

  1. 550 g
  2. 350 g
  3. 70 g
  4. 35 g
Answer and explanation

C: 70 g

The pivot is at 100 − 55 = 45 cm from Q. The 10 g mass is 35 cm left of the pivot, while the uniform rule’s centre is 5 cm right of it. Balancing moments gives 10 × 35 = M × 5, so M = 70 g.

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1986 · Question 10

Three forces F₁, F₂ and F₃ act at O in equilibrium. F₂ = 5.0 N points horizontally right. F₁ = 10.0 N points at 60° above F₂. What is the magnitude of F₃, to one decimal place?

  1. 26.4 N
  2. 15.0 N
  3. 13.2 N
  4. 10.0 N
Answer and explanation

C: 13.2 N

F₃ must oppose the resultant of F₁ and F₂. The resultant’s squared magnitude is 10² + 5² + 2 × 10 × 5 cos 60° = 175 N². Hence |F₃| = √175 ≈ 13.2 N; its direction is opposite the resultant.

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1986 · Question 11

When a box of mass 400g is given an initial speed of 5m s-1, it slides along a horizontal floor a distance of 3m before coming to rest. What is the coefficient of the kinetic friction between the box and the floor? (g = 10m s-2)

  1. 5/6
  2. 5/12
  3. 1/3
  4. 2/3
Answer and explanation

B: 5/12

Work done against friction equals the initial kinetic energy: μmg × 3 = ½m × 5². Cancelling mass gives μ = 25/(2 × 10 × 3) = 5/12.

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1986 · Question 15

A 1000 kg elevator descends with a downward acceleration of 1.0 m/s². If g = 10.0 m/s², what is the tension in its suspending cable?

  1. 1.0 N
  2. 10.0 N
  3. 9000.0 N
  4. 11000.0 N
Answer and explanation

C: 9000.0 N

Taking downward as positive, mg − T = ma. Therefore T = m(g − a) = 1000(10 − 1) = 9000 N. The downward acceleration makes tension less than weight.

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1986 · Question 17

Which mode of heat transfer does not require a material medium?

  1. Conduction
  2. Radiation
  3. Convection
  4. Propagation
Answer and explanation

B: Radiation

Thermal radiation travels as electromagnetic waves and can cross a vacuum. Conduction requires interacting matter, and convection requires moving fluid.

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1986 · Question 18

Thermal expansion of solids can be a disadvantage in the

  1. Balance wheel of a watch
  2. Fitting of wheels on rims
  3. Fire alarm
  4. Thermostat.
Answer and explanation

A: Balance wheel of a watch

Thermal expansion changes the dimensions and moment of inertia of a watch’s balance wheel, affecting its oscillation period and timekeeping. Thermal compensation is needed to reduce this error.

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1986 · Question 20

The specific latent heat of fusion of lead is the amount of heat required to

  1. Melt lead at its melting point
  2. Heat unit mass of lead through 1 °C
  3. Change unit mass of lead from solid to liquid at its melting point
  4. Change the state of unit mass of lead at its boiling point
Answer and explanation

C: Change unit mass of lead from solid to liquid at its melting point

Specific latent heat of fusion is the energy required to melt unit mass at the melting point without changing temperature. Both the unit mass and the solid-to-liquid change are essential.

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1986 · Question 21

Which of the following is common to evaporation and boiling? They

  1. Take place at any temperature.
  2. Are surface phenomena.
  3. Involve change of state
  4. Take place at a definite pressure.
Answer and explanation

C: Involve change of state

Both processes change liquid into gas. Evaporation occurs at the surface, while boiling forms vapour throughout the liquid when its vapour pressure reaches the surrounding pressure.

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1986 · Question 22

Mercury is suitable as a barometric fluid because it

  1. Expands uniformly
  2. Is opaque
  3. Is several times denser than water
  4. Is a good conductor of heat
Answer and explanation

C: Is several times denser than water

For a barometer, h = p/(ρg). Mercury’s high density means a much shorter column can balance atmospheric pressure than a water column, making the instrument practical.

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1986 · Question 23

Which of the following properties makes metals ideal for cooking utensils?

  1. High coefficient of expansion
  2. Good conduction of heat
  3. Low specific heat capacity
  4. Poor radiation of heat.
Answer and explanation

B: Good conduction of heat

Good thermal conduction lets a metal utensil transfer heat efficiently from the heat source to its contents. That is the relevant property for cooking.

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1986 · Question 25

When two objects P and Q are supplied with the same quantity of heat, the temperature change in P is observed to be twice that of Q. The mass of P is half that of Q the ratio of the specific heat capacity of P to Q is

  1. 1 : 4
  2. 4 : 1
  3. 1 : 1
  4. 2 : 1
Answer and explanation

C: 1 : 1

Equal heat gives mPcPΔTP = mQcQΔTQ. Since mP = mQ/2 and ΔTP = 2ΔTQ, the factors cancel: cP = cQ. The ratio is 1:1.

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1986 · Question 27

A ray travelling in air strikes a glass surface at an incidence angle of 60°, measured from the normal. The reflected and refracted rays are perpendicular. Taking the refractive index of air as 1, what is the refractive index of the glass, to two decimal places?

  1. 1.73
  2. 1.50
  3. 0.87
  4. 0.57
Answer and explanation

A: 1.73

The reflected angle equals the 60° incidence angle. Perpendicular reflected and refracted rays imply i + r =90°, so r =30°. Snell’s law gives n = sin 60°/sin 30° = √3 ≈1.73.

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1986 · Question 29

In which of the following arrangements is the wavelength in an increasing order?

  1. Gamma rays, infra-red rays, X-rays, radiowaves.
  2. Gamma rays, X-rays, infra-red rays, radiowaves.
  3. Radiowaves, X-rays, gamma rays, infra-red rays.
  4. Infra-red rays, radiowaves, X-rays, gamma rays.
Answer and explanation

B: Gamma rays, X-rays, infra-red rays, radiowaves.

In the electromagnetic spectrum, gamma rays have shorter wavelengths than X-rays, followed here by infrared and then radio waves. This gives gamma → X-ray → infrared → radio.

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1986 · Question 30

For light travelling from glass of refractive index 1.5 into air, what is the critical angle?

  1. sin⁻¹(1/2)
  2. sin⁻¹(2/3)
  3. sin⁻¹(3/4)
  4. sin⁻¹(8/9)
Answer and explanation

B: sin⁻¹(2/3)

At the critical angle, the refracted ray in air is at 90°. Snell’s law gives 1.5 sin c = 1, so c = sin⁻¹(2/3). The incident ray must be travelling from glass toward air.

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1986 · Question 32

In the geometrical ray model of a pinhole camera, what happens to image sharpness when the hole is enlarged?

  1. Gives a blurred image.
  2. Corrects for chromatic aberration
  3. Magnifies the image
  4. Brings the image into the sharper focus.
Answer and explanation

A: Gives a blurred image.

In the ray model, enlarging the pinhole lets each object point illuminate a wider patch on the screen. These patches overlap more, so the image becomes brighter but more blurred.

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1986 · Question 36

Which of the following is true of the loudness of sound? It

  1. Depends on the square of the amplitude of the vibrating body.
  2. Is proportional to the distance of the observer from the source of the sound.
  3. Is greatest in vacuum
  4. Is independent of frequency.
Answer and explanation

A: Depends on the square of the amplitude of the vibrating body.

For otherwise unchanged conditions, sound intensity varies with amplitude squared. Greater intensity is perceived as greater loudness. Loudness also depends on frequency and the listener, so it is not identical to physical intensity.

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1986 · Question 38

The vibration of an air column produces the sound in the

  1. Piano
  2. Guitar
  3. Flute
  4. School handbell.
Answer and explanation

C: Flute

A flute sets the air column inside its tube into vibration. A piano and guitar primarily use vibrating strings, while a handbell uses the vibration of the bell itself.

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1986 · Question 39

A 9.0 V accumulator with negligible internal resistance drives a 5 Ω resistor in series with a parallel pair of 5 Ω and 20 Ω resistors. What is the total current supplied by the accumulator?

  1. 0.3 A
  2. 0.8 A
  3. 1.0 A
  4. 1.8 A
Answer and explanation

C: 1.0 A

The parallel resistance is(5 ×20)/(5 +20) =4 Ω. Adding the series 5 Ω gives 9 Ω. Since the accumulator’s internal resistance is negligible, its current is I =9.0/9 =1.0 A.

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1986 · Question 41

Which is NOT a part of a simple brushed DC electric motor?

  1. Field magnet
  2. Armature
  3. Commutator
  4. Transformer
Answer and explanation

D: Transformer

A simple brushed DC motor has a field magnet, an armature and a commutator. A transformer is a separate device for transferring AC electrical energy between circuits.

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1986 · Question 42

Which of the following is stored by a dry Leclanche cell?

  1. Electrical power
  2. Kinetic energy
  3. Electric current
  4. Chemical energy.
Answer and explanation

D: Chemical energy.

A Leclanché cell stores chemical energy in its reactants. During discharge, chemical reactions provide electrical energy to the external circuit.

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1986 · Question 44

Which of the following is true of magnetism?

  1. Iron filings cling mainly around the ends of a bar magnet
  2. A freely suspended bar magnet always comes to rest in the geographic north–south direction
  3. Like poles attract
  4. Lodestone is a non-magnetic oxide
Answer and explanation

A: Iron filings cling mainly around the ends of a bar magnet

The magnetic field is strongest near the poles of a bar magnet, so iron filings gather most densely near its ends. Like poles repel, and lodestone is magnetic.

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1986 · Question 45

The angle between the magnetic meridian and the geographic meridian at a locality on the earth is the

  1. Longitude of the locality.
  2. Angle of inclination at the locality
  3. Latitude of the locality
  4. Angle of declination of the locality.
Answer and explanation

D: Angle of declination of the locality.

Magnetic declination is the horizontal angle between magnetic north and true geographic north. Inclination instead measures the magnetic field’s tilt relative to the horizontal.

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1986 · Question 49

Radiation has wavelength 400 nm. Taking the speed of light in air as 3 × 10⁸ m/s, what is its frequency?

  1. 1.3 × 10⁻¹⁵ Hz
  2. 7.5 × 10⁵ Hz
  3. 1.2 × 10¹¹ Hz
  4. 7.5 × 10¹⁴ Hz
Answer and explanation

D: 7.5 × 10¹⁴ Hz

Convert 400 nm to 400 × 10⁻⁹ m. Frequency f = c/λ = (3 × 10⁸)/(400 × 10⁻⁹) = 7.5 × 10¹⁴ Hz.

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1985 · Question 1

Which of the following is NOT a fundamental S.I. unit?

  1. Metre
  2. Ampere
  3. Kelvin
  4. Second
  5. Radian
Answer and explanation

E: Radian

The radian measures plane angle and is a dimensionless derived unit. Metre, ampere, kelvin and second are SI base units.

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1985 · Question 6

If a car starts from rest and moves with a uniform acceleration of 10m s-2 for ten seconds, the distance it covers in the last one second of the motion is

  1. 95 m
  2. 100 m
  3. 500 m
  4. 905 m
  5. 1 000 m
Answer and explanation

A: 95 m

From rest, distance after t seconds is ½at². The final second covers ½ × 10 × (10² − 9²) = 95 m.

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1985 · Question 9

Which of the following is NOT a force?

  1. Friction
  2. Tension
  3. Upthrust
  4. Weight
  5. Impulse.
Answer and explanation

E: Impulse.

Impulse is the change in momentum, equal to force multiplied by time for a constant force. Its unit is N·s. Friction, tension, upthrust and weight are forces measured in newtons.

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1985 · Question 10

Two masses 40g and 60g respectively, are attached firmly to the ends of a light metre rule. The centre of gravity of the system is

  1. At the mid-point of the metre rule
  2. 40cm from the lighter mass
  3. 40cm from the heavier mass
  4. 60cm from the heavier mass
  5. indeterminate because the metre-rule is light.
Answer and explanation

C: 40cm from the heavier mass

Measure x from the 40 g mass. The centre of mass is x = (40 × 0 + 60 × 100)/(40 + 60) = 60 cm. It is therefore 40 cm from the heavier mass.

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1985 · Question 14

Two divers G and H are 20 m and 40 m below a lake surface. Their absolute pressures are P₁ and P₂ respectively. Atmospheric pressure equals 10 m of water. Find P₂/P₁ to two decimal places.

  1. 0.50
  2. 0.60
  3. 1.67
  4. 2.00
  5. 3.00
Answer and explanation

C: 1.67

Absolute pressure includes atmospheric pressure. Thus P₁ = ρg(10 + 20) and P₂ = ρg(10 + 40). Their ratio is 50/30 = 1.67 to two decimal places.

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1985 · Question 15

The areas of the effort and load pistons of a hydraulic press are 0.5m2 and 5m2 respectively. If a force F1 of 100N is applied on the effort piston, the force F2 on the load is

  1. 10 N
  2. 100 N
  3. 500 N
  4. 1 000 N
  5. 5 000 N
Answer and explanation

D: 1 000 N

Pascal’s principle gives equal pressure in the two pistons: F₁/A₁ = F₂/A₂. Therefore F₂ = 100 × 5/0.5 = 1000 N.

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1985 · Question 19

Equal masses of liquids P at 20 °C and Q at 80 °C have specific heat capacities 1.0 and 1.5 J/(kg·°C), respectively. They are mixed in a lagged calorimeter. Neglect heat loss and the calorimeter’s heat capacity. What is the equilibrium temperature?

  1. 44 °C
  2. 50 °C
  3. 56 °C
  4. 60 °C
  5. 70 °C
Answer and explanation

C: 56 °C

Heat lost by Q equals heat gained by P: 1.5(80 − T) = 1.0(T − 20). Hence 140 = 2.5T, giving T = 56 °C. Equal masses cancel from the equation.

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1985 · Question 21

In a gas experiment, the pressure of the gas is plotted against the reciprocal of the volume of the gas at a constant temperature. The unit of the slope of the resulting curve is

  1. Force
  2. Force/m
  3. Work
  4. Force/m3
  5. Energy/m2.
Answer and explanation

C: Work

Slope is pressure divided by reciprocal volume, so its units are pressure × volume: (N/m²) × m³ = N·m = J. These are the units of work.

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1985 · Question 22

Water shows anomalous behaviour

  1. Below 0 °C
  2. Between 0 °C and 4 °C
  3. At exactly 4 °C
  4. Between 4 °C and 100 °C
  5. Above 100 °C
Answer and explanation

B: Between 0 °C and 4 °C

Between 0 °C and 4 °C, water contracts as it warms and expands as it cools. Its density is greatest at about 4 °C. This reversal of ordinary thermal expansion is its anomalous behaviour.

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1985 · Question 25

Which statement about a pure liquid in equilibrium with its vapour is NOT correct?

  1. Boiling occurs when its saturated vapour pressure equals the external pressure.
  2. Both its boiling point and its saturated vapour pressure at a fixed temperature depend on external pressure.
  3. Its saturated vapour pressure rises as temperature increases.
  4. Its saturated vapour pressure is independent of available volume while both liquid and vapour remain present.
  5. Water can boil below 100 °C at high altitude.
Answer and explanation

B: Both its boiling point and its saturated vapour pressure at a fixed temperature depend on external pressure.

At a fixed temperature, a pure liquid’s saturated vapour pressure is determined by the liquid and its temperature. External pressure sets the boiling temperature by the condition that vapour pressure equals external pressure.

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1985 · Question 26

Which phenomenon cannot be explained by a simple kinetic molecular model of matter alone?

  1. Expansion
  2. Conduction
  3. Convection
  4. Radiation
  5. Evaporation.
Answer and explanation

D: Radiation

Radiation transfers energy by electromagnetic waves and can cross a vacuum. A simple kinetic molecular model alone does not describe this mechanism; electromagnetic theory is also needed.

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1985 · Question 27

In order to find the depth of the sea. A ship sends out a sound wave and receives an echo after one second. If the velocity of sound in water is 1500m/s, what is the depth of the sea?

  1. 0.75km
  2. 1.50km
  3. 2.20km
  4. 3.00km
  5. 3.75km
Answer and explanation

A: 0.75km

The echo time includes travel down to the seabed and back. Depth = vt/2 = 1500 × 1/2 = 750 m = 0.75 km.

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1985 · Question 28

When a sound wave passes from air into water its

  1. Speed and frequency increase but its wavelength remains the same.
  2. Speed and wavelength increase but its frequency remains the same
  3. Speed decreases.
  4. Speed remains the same but its frequency and wavelength change.
  5. Speed increases but its frequency and wavelength decrease.
Answer and explanation

B: Speed and wavelength increase but its frequency remains the same

Sound travels faster in water than in air. Its frequency stays fixed by the source as it crosses the boundary. Since λ = v/f, the wavelength increases with speed.

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1985 · Question 29

If the fundamental frequency of a closed pipe organ on a day when the speed of sound is 340m s-1 is 170 Hz, then the length of the pipe is

  1. 50cm
  2. 70cm
  3. 100cm
  4. 150cm
  5. 200cm
Answer and explanation

A: 50cm

For the fundamental of a pipe closed at one end, L = λ/4 = v/(4f). Thus L = 340/(4 × 170) = 0.50 m = 50 cm, neglecting end correction.

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1985 · Question 30

An object is placed 15cm in front of a concave mirror of radius 40cm. The image formed is

  1. Virtual and 60cm behind the mirror
  2. Real and 60cm in front of the mirror
  3. Virtual and at infinity
  4. Real and at infinity
  5. Virtual and 40cm from the mirror.
Answer and explanation

A: Virtual and 60cm behind the mirror

The focal length is R/2 = 20 cm. With real distances positive, 1/v = 1/20 − 1/15 = −1/60. Thus the image is virtual, 60 cm behind the mirror; the object lies inside the focus.

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1985 · Question 31

A 45° triangular glass prism can be used as a reflector of light because

  1. Refraction never takes place in such a prism
  2. The angle of reflection equals the angle of incidence
  3. The refractive index of glass is less than 1
  4. It is transparent
  5. The critical angle for glass is less than 45°
Answer and explanation

E: The critical angle for glass is less than 45°

In a right-angled 45° glass prism, a ray entering normally at a short face reaches the long face at 45°. If the glass–air critical angle is smaller, total internal reflection occurs there.

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1985 · Question 33

Two rays from a point under a flat water surface lie in the same vertical plane, symmetrically about the vertical. Their angle in water is 60°. Find their angle in air to one decimal place. Take the refractive index of water as 4/3.

  1. 41.8°
  2. 44.1°
  3. 60.0°
  4. 83.6°
  5. 120.0°
Answer and explanation

D: 83.6°

Each ray is 30° from the normal in water. Snell’s law gives sin r = (4/3)sin 30° = 2/3, so r = 41.81°. The emergent rays are separated by 2r = 83.6° to one decimal place.

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1985 · Question 39

Which of the following will convert a milliammeter to a voltmeter?

  1. Low series resistance
  2. Low parallel resistance
  3. High series resistance
  4. High parallel resistance
  5. Parallel resistance equal to milliameter resistance.
Answer and explanation

C: High series resistance

A high resistance in series limits the current through the meter. The resulting combination measures a larger voltage because V = I(Rseries + Rmeter).

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1985 · Question 42

An electric kettle connected to 240 V produces 6.0 × 10⁵ J of heat in 5 minutes. Find its resistance.

  1. 14.4 ohms
  2. 28.8 ohms
  3. 144 ohms
  4. 288 ohms
  5. 2 880 ohms
Answer and explanation

B: 28.8 ohms

Five minutes is 300 s. Power = E/t = 600000/300 = 2000 W. Using P = V²/R gives R = 240²/2000 = 28.8 Ω.

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1985 · Question 43

On which of the following does the operation of a moving coil ammeter depend? I Electromagnetic induction. II Force on a current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field. III Magnetic effect of an electric current.

  1. I only
  2. II only
  3. III only
  4. II and III
  5. I, II and III
Answer and explanation

D: II and III

A current-carrying coil experiences magnetic forces that produce a turning effect in the meter’s magnetic field. These are the magnetic effect of current and the force on a current-carrying conductor, so II and III apply.

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1985 · Question 44

A 10 Ω resistor and a 5 Ω resistor are connected in parallel, with total current I entering their common junction. The 5 Ω resistor dissipates 40 W. What power does the 10 Ω resistor dissipate?

  1. 10 W
  2. 20 W
  3. 40 W
  4. 80 W
  5. 100 W
Answer and explanation

B: 20 W

Parallel resistors have the same voltage across them. From the 5 Ω branch, V² = PR = 40 × 5 = 200 V². The power in the 10 Ω branch is therefore V²/10 = 200/10 = 20 W.

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1985 · Question 47

Which of the following statements about electrolysis is NOT correct?

  1. The substances in solution in the electrolyte become ionized.
  2. Ions are electrically charged and are attracted towards electrodes when a potential difference is applied.
  3. Ions may be discharged at the electrodes, forming bubbles or deposits.
  4. The mass deposited depends upon the length of time for which current flows.
  5. The mass of gas set free or metal deposited is proportional to the square of the current.
Answer and explanation

E: The mass of gas set free or metal deposited is proportional to the square of the current.

Faraday’s law gives deposited mass m = MIt/(nF). For the same material and duration, mass is proportional to current, not to its square.

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1984 · Question 1

The distance travelled by a particle starting from rest is plotted against the square of the time elapsed from the commencement of motion. The resulting graph is linear. The slope of this graph is a measure of

  1. Initial displacement
  2. Initial velocity
  3. Acceleration
  4. Half the acceleration
  5. Half the initial velocity
Answer and explanation

D: Half the acceleration

Starting from rest with constant acceleration, s = ½at². A graph of s against t² therefore has slope ½a. Equivalently, if s = kt², differentiating twice gives a = 2k.

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1984 · Question 2

A uniform metre rule PT is horizontal and pivoted at R, its 70 cm mark. A downward force of 0.1 N acts at Q, the 60 cm mark, and a downward force of 0.4 N acts at S, the 85 cm mark. The rule is in equilibrium under these forces, its weight and the pivot reaction. What is its weight?

  1. 0.25 N
  2. 0.30 N
  3. 0.35 N
  4. 0.50 N
  5. 0.56 N
Answer and explanation

A: 0.25 N

The uniform rule’s weight W acts at 50 cm, 20 cm left of the pivot. Taking moments about 70 cm gives 0.4 × 15 = 0.1 × 10 + W × 20, with distances in centimetres. Thus W = (6 − 1)/20 = 0.25 N.

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1984 · Question 3

For which quantities are the dimensions ML²T⁻² correct? I. Moment of a force. II. Work. III. Acceleration.

  1. I only
  2. II only
  3. III only
  4. I and II
  5. II and III
Answer and explanation

D: I and II

Force has dimensions MLT⁻². Both moment of force and work multiply force by a distance, giving ML²T⁻². Acceleration has dimensions LT⁻², so I and II are correct.

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1984 · Question 4

What volume of alcohol of density 8.4 × 10² kg/m³ has the same mass as 4.2 m³ of petrol of density 7.2 × 10² kg/m³?

  1. 1.4 m³
  2. 3.6 m³
  3. 4.9 m³
  4. 5.0 m³
  5. 5.8 m³
Answer and explanation

B: 3.6 m³

The petrol mass is 720 × 4.2 = 3024 kg. For alcohol of density 840 kg/m³, volume = mass/density = 3024/840 = 3.6 m³.

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1984 · Question 5

For correcting long sight defects in the human eye we require a

  1. Converging lens
  2. Diverging lens
  3. Microscope
  4. Periscope
  5. Plain glass sheet.
Answer and explanation

A: Converging lens

A long-sighted eye does not converge light from close objects sufficiently. A converging lens adds focusing power so that the image forms on the retina.

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1984 · Question 6

For a concave mirror to form a real diminished image, the object must be placed

  1. Behind the mirror
  2. Between the mirror and its focus
  3. Between the focus and the centre of curvature
  4. At the centre of curvature
  5. At a distance greater than the radius of curvature
Answer and explanation

E: At a distance greater than the radius of curvature

A concave mirror forms a real, smaller image when the object is beyond its centre of curvature. The image then lies between the focus and the centre of curvature.

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1984 · Question 7

The unit of quantity of electricity (electric charge) is called

  1. The ampere
  2. The volt
  3. The coulomb
  4. The ammeter
  5. Electromotive force.
Answer and explanation

C: The coulomb

Electric charge is measured in coulombs. One coulomb is the charge transferred by a current of one ampere flowing for one second: Q = It.

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1984 · Question 8

The resistance of a wire depends on

  1. The length of the wire
  2. The diameter of the wire
  3. The temperature of the wire
  4. The resistivity of the wire
  5. All of the above.
Answer and explanation

E: All of the above.

For a uniform wire, R = ρL/A. Resistance depends on its length, cross-sectional area (and therefore diameter), and resistivity. Temperature also affects resistivity, so all four factors matter.

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1984 · Question 10

Two cells, each of emf 1.5 V and internal resistance 2 Ω, are connected in parallel with matching polarities. What current flows through an external 1 Ω resistor?

  1. 0.75 A
  2. 1.5 A
  3. 0.5 A
  4. 1.0 A
  5. 0.6 A
Answer and explanation

A: 0.75 A

Identical cells in parallel retain emf 1.5 V, while their combined internal resistance is 2/2 = 1 Ω. Including the external resistor, I = 1.5/(1 + 1) = 0.75 A.

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1984 · Question 11

Which component is NOT contained in a zinc-carbon dry cell?

  1. Carbon rod
  2. Paste containing manganese dioxide
  3. Paste containing ammonium chloride
  4. Zinc case
  5. Copper rod
Answer and explanation

E: Copper rod

A zinc-carbon dry cell contains a carbon rod, a zinc casing and a paste containing ammonium chloride and manganese dioxide. A copper rod is not one of these components.

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1984 · Question 12

Which of the following can be described as high tension transmission?

  1. High resistance and low voltage
  2. Low current and high voltage
  3. High current and low voltage
  4. High voltage and zero current
  5. High current and low resistance.
Answer and explanation

B: Low current and high voltage

High-tension transmission means high-voltage transmission. For the same power, using a high voltage permits a low current and reduces I²R heating losses in the conductors.

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1984 · Question 13

All heat generated in a 5 Ω resistor by a 2 A current flowing for 30 seconds evaporates 5 g of liquid at its boiling point. What is the specific latent heat of the liquid?

  1. 120 J
  2. 60 J/g
  3. 120 J/g
  4. 1500 J
  5. 1500 J/g
Answer and explanation

C: 120 J/g

The heat supplied is I²Rt = 2² × 5 × 30 = 600 J. Specific latent heat is energy per unit mass: L = 600/5 = 120 J/g.

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1984 · Question 14

When a standing wave occurs in an air column, the distance between a node and its nearest antinode is equal to

  1. One-quarter of the wavelength
  2. One-half of the wavelength
  3. The wavelength
  4. Twice the wavelength
  5. Four-times the wavelength.
Answer and explanation

A: One-quarter of the wavelength

In a standing wave, adjacent nodes are half a wavelength apart. An antinode is midway between them, so a node and its nearest antinode are one-quarter wavelength apart.

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1984 · Question 15

Which statements are NOT correct? I. At fixed temperature and composition, pressure changes do not affect the speed of sound in air treated as an ideal gas. II. The speed of sound in air increases with temperature. III. The quality of a note depends only on its frequency.

  1. I only
  2. II only
  3. III only
  4. I and III only
  5. II and III only.
Answer and explanation

C: III only

At fixed temperature and composition, pressure changes do not change the ideal-gas speed of sound. Sound speed increases with temperature. The quality or timbre of a note depends on its mixture of frequencies and their relative amplitudes, so only III is incorrect.

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1984 · Question 16

Two identical tuning forks have natural frequency 256 Hz. One is loaded, and 4 beats per second are heard when they sound together. What is the frequency of the loaded fork?

  1. 260 Hz
  2. 252 Hz
  3. 248 Hz
  4. 264 Hz
  5. 258 Hz
Answer and explanation

B: 252 Hz

Adding a small load to a tuning fork lowers its frequency. The beat frequency is the difference between the two frequencies, so the loaded fork vibrates at 256 − 4 = 252 Hz.

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1984 · Question 17

Dew point is the temperature at which water vapour in the atmosphere

  1. Turns into steam
  2. Solidifies into ice pellets
  3. First condenses into liquid form
  4. Is just sufficient to cause cooling
  5. Has a relative humidity of fifty percent
Answer and explanation

C: First condenses into liquid form

The dew point is the temperature to which air must be cooled, without changing its water-vapour content, to become saturated and start forming liquid droplets.

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1984 · Question 18

The lower (0 °C) and upper (100 °C) fixed points of a mercury-in-glass thermometer are 210 mm apart. In a room, the mercury ends 49 mm above the lower point. What is the room temperature to one decimal place?

  1. 55.3 °C
  2. 23.3 °C
  3. 49.0 °C
  4. 16.1 °C
  5. 76.7 °C
Answer and explanation

B: 23.3 °C

The 210 mm interval represents 100 °C. A rise of 49 mm therefore corresponds to (49/210) × 100 = 23.33… °C, or 23.3 °C to one decimal place.

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1984 · Question 19

If a solid changes directly into a gas when heat is applied the process is called

  1. Vaporization
  2. Evaporation
  3. Sublimation
  4. Ionization
  5. Conversion.
Answer and explanation

C: Sublimation

Sublimation is the direct change from solid to gas without passing through a liquid phase. Dry ice is a familiar example.

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1984 · Question 27

Heat is supplied at 100 W to 1.0 × 10⁻² kg of liquid for 20 seconds. Its temperature rises by 5 °C. Assuming the supplied heat warms the liquid, what is its specific heat capacity?

  1. 2.0 × 10² J/(kg·K)
  2. 2.0 × 10² J/kg
  3. 4.0 × 10⁴ J/(kg·K)
  4. 4.0 × 10⁴ J/kg
  5. 8.4 × 10³ J/(kg·K)
Answer and explanation

C: 4.0 × 10⁴ J/(kg·K)

Heat supplied is Pt = 100 × 20 = 2000 J. The temperature rise is 5 K, so c = Q/(mΔT) = 2000/(0.01 × 5) = 4.0 × 10⁴ J/(kg·K).

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1984 · Question 35

Between terminals X and Y, a 4 μF capacitor connects X to an intermediate node. From that node to Y are three parallel branches containing a 4 μF, a 3 μF and a 2 μF capacitor respectively. What is the effective capacitance between X and Y?

  1. 3/4 μF
  2. 2 10/13 μF
  3. 12 μF
  4. 4 12/13 μF
  5. 13 μF
Answer and explanation

B: 2 10/13 μF

The three parallel capacitors add to 4 + 3 + 2 = 9 μF. This 9 μF combination is in series with the first 4 μF capacitor, giving C = (4 × 9)/(4 + 9) = 36/13 μF = 2 10/13 μF.

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1984 · Question 37

In a model atmosphere, sea-level pressure is 10⁵ N/m², density is uniform at 1 kg/m³, and g = 10 m/s². What is the height of this atmosphere?

  1. 100 m
  2. 1000 m
  3. 10 000 m
  4. 100 000 m
  5. 1000 000 m
Answer and explanation

C: 10 000 m

For the stated uniform-density model, p = ρgh. Hence h = 10⁵/(1 × 10) = 10000 m. This is the height of the simplified model atmosphere.

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1984 · Question 38

Which of the following is a correct explanation of the inertia of a body?

  1. Ability to overcome the earth’s gravity
  2. Reluctance to stop moving
  3. Readiness to start moving
  4. Reluctance to start moving and its readiness to stop moving once it has begun to move
  5. Reluctance to start moving and its reluctance to stop moving once it has begun to move.
Answer and explanation

E: Reluctance to start moving and its reluctance to stop moving once it has begun to move.

Inertia is resistance to a change in velocity. A body tends to stay at rest or continue moving with constant velocity unless a resultant external force acts.

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1984 · Question 39

A water pump at Kainji Dam lifts 1000 kg of water through a vertical height of 10 m in 10 s. Taking g = 10 m/s², what is its useful lifting power?

  1. 1.0 kW
  2. 10.0 kW
  3. 12.5 kW
  4. 15.0 kW
  5. 20.0 kW
Answer and explanation

B: 10.0 kW

The gain in gravitational potential energy is mgh = 1000 × 10 × 10 = 100000 J. Dividing by 10 s gives 10000 W = 10 kW of useful lifting power.

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1984 · Question 40

What is the apparent colour of a RED SHIRT when viewed in PURE green light?

  1. Red
  2. Green
  3. Yellow
  4. Black
  5. Blue
Answer and explanation

D: Black

In the ideal colour model, a red shirt reflects red light and absorbs green light. Under pure green illumination there is no red light to reflect, so it appears black.

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1984 · Question 41

Which list gives the colours of the visible spectrum in order from longest to shortest wavelength?

  1. Blue, red, green. Yellow, indigo, violet, orange.
  2. Red, orange, yellow, green, blue, indigo, violet.
  3. Red, orange, yellow, indigo, green, blue, violet.
  4. Indigo, green, blue, violet, yellow, red, orange.
  5. Yellow, blue, green, violet, orange, indigo, red.
Answer and explanation

B: Red, orange, yellow, green, blue, indigo, violet.

From longest to shortest visible wavelength, the usual order is red, orange, yellow, green, blue, indigo and violet. Frequency increases in the reverse direction to wavelength.

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1984 · Question 42

Cathode rays are

  1. High-energy electromagnetic waves
  2. Protons
  3. Streams of electrons
  4. Neutrons
  5. Radio waves
Answer and explanation

C: Streams of electrons

Cathode rays are streams of electrons. They carry negative charge and can be deflected by electric and magnetic fields.

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1984 · Question 45

Radio waves travel at 3 × 10⁸ m/s. A station broadcasts at 800 kHz. What is the wavelength?

  1. 375.0 m
  2. 267.0 m
  3. 240.0 m
  4. 37.5 m
  5. 26.7 m
Answer and explanation

A: 375.0 m

Convert 800 kHz to 800000 Hz. Wavelength λ = v/f = (3 × 10⁸)/800000 = 375 m.

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1984 · Question 47

What does it cost to run five 50 W lamps and four 100 W lamps for 10 hours at a tariff of 2 kobo per kWh?

  1. ₦0.65
  2. ₦0.13
  3. ₦3.90
  4. ₦39.00
  5. ₦234.00
Answer and explanation

B: ₦0.13

Total power is 5 × 50 + 4 × 100 = 650 W = 0.65 kW. In 10 hours the lamps use 6.5 kWh. At the stated rate, the cost is 6.5 × 2 = 13 kobo = ₦0.13.

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1983 · Question 2

Which of the following is NOT a vector quantity?

  1. Force
  2. Altitude
  3. Weight
  4. Displacement
  5. Acceleration.
Answer and explanation

B: Altitude

Altitude is a height measured from a reference level, so it has magnitude without a vector direction. Force, weight, displacement and acceleration are vectors.

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1983 · Question 3

Three forces act at O in equilibrium. P₃ points horizontally left; P₁ points right at an acute angle θ₁ above the horizontal; P₂ points right at an acute angle θ₂ below the horizontal. Which relations must hold in general? I. P₁ cos θ₁ = P₁ cos θ₂. II. P₃ = P₁ cos θ₁ + P₂ cos θ₂. III. P₁ sin θ₁ = P₂ sin θ₂.

  1. I only
  2. II only
  3. III only
  4. II and III only
  5. I and III only
Answer and explanation

D: II and III only

Horizontal equilibrium gives P₃ = P₁ cos θ₁ + P₂ cos θ₂. Vertical equilibrium gives P₁ sin θ₁ = P₂ sin θ₂. Statement I is not a general equilibrium identity: the two angles need not be equal. Therefore II and III must hold.

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1983 · Question 5

A brick at rest on a horizontal table is pulled horizontally to the right by a cord. In the usual dry-friction model, which statement about the friction force on the brick is correct?

  1. It increases if the pull increases while the brick remains at rest
  2. It acts horizontally to the right
  3. It decreases if an identical brick is placed on top while the pull is unchanged
  4. It is zero once the brick slides
  5. It changes merely because the brick is turned onto another face while the pull and surface properties stay unchanged
Answer and explanation

A: It increases if the pull increases while the brick remains at rest

While the brick remains at rest, static friction acts leftwards and matches the rightward pull. Increasing that pull increases static friction until its limiting value is reached. The limiting value can change with normal force, but the actual static friction still balances the applied pull.

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1983 · Question 6

The force with which an object is attracted to the earth is called its

  1. Acceleration
  2. Mass
  3. Gravity
  4. Impulse
  5. Weight.
Answer and explanation

E: Weight.

Weight is the gravitational force acting on an object: W = mg. Mass measures the amount of matter and is measured in kilograms; weight is measured in newtons.

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1983 · Question 7

The refractive index of a liquid is 1.5. If the speed of light in a vacuum is 3.0 × 10⁸ m/s, the speed of light in the liquid is

  1. 1.5 × 10⁸ m/s
  2. 2.0 × 10⁸ m/s
  3. 3.0 × 10⁸ m/s
  4. 4.5 × 10⁸ m/s
  5. 9.0 × 10⁸ m/s
Answer and explanation

B: 2.0 × 10⁸ m/s

Refractive index n = c/v, so v = c/n = (3.0 × 10⁸)/1.5 = 2.0 × 10⁸ m/s. Light travels more slowly in this liquid than in a vacuum.

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1983 · Question 8

If the relative density of a metal is 19, what is the mass of 20 cm³ of the metal when immersed in water?

  1. 380g
  2. 400g
  3. 360g
  4. 39g
  5. 180g
Answer and explanation

A: 380g

Relative density 19 means a density of 19 g/cm³. Mass = density × volume = 19 × 20 = 380 g. Immersion changes apparent weight, not the mass of the metal.

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1983 · Question 9

Which of the following statements about liquid pressure is NOT correct? The pressure

  1. At a point in a liquid is proportional to the depth.
  2. At any point in a liquid is the same at the same level.
  3. Is exerted equally in all directions at any point.
  4. Of a liquid at any point on the wall of its container acts in a direction perpendicular to the wall.
  5. At a particular depth depends on the shape of the vessel.
Answer and explanation

E: At a particular depth depends on the shape of the vessel.

For a liquid at rest, pressure due to the liquid is p = ρgh. At a given depth it depends on density and depth, not on the shape of the container.

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1983 · Question 12

Which statements about defects of vision are correct? I. For a long-sighted person, close objects appear blurred. II. For a short-sighted person, distant objects appear blurred. III. Short sight is corrected using converging lenses.

  1. I only
  2. II only
  3. I and II only
  4. II and III only
  5. I, II and III
Answer and explanation

C: I and II only

Long-sightedness makes close objects difficult to focus on; short-sightedness makes distant objects blurred. Short-sightedness is corrected using diverging lenses, so I and II are correct but III is false.

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1983 · Question 13

The range of wavelengths of the visible spectrum is 400nm – 700nm. The wavelength of gamma rays is

  1. Longer than 700nm
  2. Shorter than 700nm but longer than 400nm
  3. 550nm
  4. Shorter than 400nm
  5. Infinite
Answer and explanation

D: Shorter than 400nm

Gamma rays have much shorter wavelengths than visible light. Their wavelengths are therefore shorter than 400 nm.

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1983 · Question 14

If the pressure on 100 cm³ of an ideal gas is doubled while its kelvin temperature is halved, what is the new volume?

  1. 25 cm³
  2. 50 cm³
  3. 100 cm³
  4. 200 cm³
  5. 400 cm³
Answer and explanation

A: 25 cm³

For a fixed amount of ideal gas, PV/T is constant. V₂ = V₁(P₁/P₂)(T₂/T₁) = 100 × ½ × ½ = 25 cm³. Both changes reduce the volume.

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1983 · Question 18

Which of the following arrangements in the sequence shown can be used to obtain a pure spectrum of white light?

  1. Source, slit, converging lens, prism, converging lens, screen.
  2. Source, slit, diverging lens, screen.
  3. Source, converging lens, prism, diverging lens, screen.
  4. Source, slit, prism, diverging lens, screen
Answer and explanation

A: Source, slit, converging lens, prism, converging lens, screen.

The slit provides a narrow source. The first converging lens makes the rays parallel before the prism separates the colours; the second converging lens focuses them onto the screen to form a pure spectrum.

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1983 · Question 21

It is usual to transmit electric power at high voltage and low current. Which of the following are possible advantages of the method. I Heat losses are reduced because the currents are small. II Thin wires can be used because small currents are flowing. III The power can flow faster because the voltage is high.

  1. I only
  2. I and II only
  3. II and III only
  4. I and III only
  5. I, II and III.
Answer and explanation

B: I and II only

For a given transmitted power, a higher voltage requires a smaller current. Heating loss is I²R, so a smaller current reduces heating and allows a smaller conductor cross-section for the same loss limit. Higher voltage does not mean that power travels faster.

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1983 · Question 22

The linear expansivity of brass is 2 × 10⁻⁵ °C⁻¹. If a piece of brass has volume 10 cm³ at 0 °C, what is its volume at 100 °C?

  1. 10.02 cm³
  2. 10.04 cm³
  3. 10.06 cm³
  4. 10.20 cm³
  5. 102.00 cm³
Answer and explanation

C: 10.06 cm³

For a solid, volume expansivity is approximately 3α. V = V₀(1 + 3αΔT) = 10(1 + 3 × 2 × 10⁻⁵ × 100) = 10.06 cm³.

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1983 · Question 23

A 24 V potential difference is applied across four 6 Ω resistors connected in parallel. What is the current in each resistor?

  1. 1 A
  2. 4 A
  3. 16 A
  4. 18 A
  5. 36 A
Answer and explanation

B: 4 A

Each parallel branch has the full 24 V across it. The current in each 6 Ω resistor is I = V/R = 24/6 = 4 A. The total current through all four branches is 16 A.

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1983 · Question 26

The electrochemical equivalent of a metal is 0.126 × 10⁻⁶ kg/C. What mass of metal will a current of 5 A deposit from a suitable bath in 1 hour?

  1. 0.0378 × 10⁻³ kg
  2. 0.227 × 10⁻³ kg
  3. 0.378 × 10⁻³ kg
  4. 0.595 × 10⁻³ kg
  5. 2.268 × 10⁻³ kg
Answer and explanation

E: 2.268 × 10⁻³ kg

The charge passed is Q = It = 5 × 3600 = 18000 C. Deposited mass m = ZQ = 0.126 × 10⁻⁶ × 18000 = 2.268 × 10⁻³ kg.

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1983 · Question 27

Ripples on water are similar to light waves in that they both

  1. Have the same wavelength
  2. Are longitudinal
  3. Cannot be reflected
  4. Travel at the same speed
  5. Can be refracted and diffracted.
Answer and explanation

E: Can be refracted and diffracted.

Both water ripples and light can change direction through refraction and spread around edges or openings through diffraction. They do not need to have the same speed or wavelength to show these wave behaviours.

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1983 · Question 31

1000 identical drops of oil of density 500 kg/m³ have a total mass of 5 × 10⁻⁴ kg. One drop forms a thin film of area 0.5 m² on water. What is the film thickness?

  1. 2 × 10⁻⁸ m
  2. 2 × 10⁻⁹ m
  3. 2 × 10⁻⁷ m
  4. 3 × 10⁻⁹ m
  5. 2.8 × 10⁻⁸ m
Answer and explanation

B: 2 × 10⁻⁹ m

One drop has mass (5 × 10⁻⁴)/1000 = 5 × 10⁻⁷ kg. Its volume is m/ρ = 10⁻⁹ m³. Film thickness = volume/area = 10⁻⁹/0.5 = 2 × 10⁻⁹ m.

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1983 · Question 32

A spring has total length 14 cm when a mass of 20 g is hung from it, and length 16 cm when a mass of 30 g is hung from it. Calculate the unstretched length, assuming Hooke’s law is obeyed.

  1. 9.33 cm
  2. 10.00 cm
  3. 10.66 cm
  4. 12.00 cm
  5. 15.00 cm
Answer and explanation

B: 10.00 cm

Hooke’s law makes extension proportional to load. An extra 10 g increases the length by 2 cm, so the 20 g load produces a 4 cm extension. The natural length is 14 − 4 = 10 cm.

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1983 · Question 34

Which statement is correct? I. Mass number equals the total number of protons and electrons in an atom. II. Atomic number equals the number of protons in an atom. III. The number of electrons in an atom equals the total number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus.

  1. I only
  2. II only
  3. III only
  4. I and II only
  5. II and III only.
Answer and explanation

B: II only

Atomic number is the number of protons, so II is correct. Mass number counts protons plus neutrons. A neutral atom has equal numbers of electrons and protons, not protons plus neutrons.

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1983 · Question 38

A current of 3 A flows for 10 seconds through a 20 Ω heating element embedded in 1000 g of oil, raising the oil temperature by 10 °C. Assuming the electrical energy heats the oil, what is its specific heat capacity?

  1. 1.8 J/g
  2. 0.6 J/g
  3. 0.18 J/(g·°C)
  4. 1.8 J/(g·°C)
  5. 0.06 J/(g·°C)
Answer and explanation

C: 0.18 J/(g·°C)

Electrical energy supplied is I²Rt = 3² × 20 × 10 = 1800 J. Using Q = mcΔT, c = 1800/(1000 × 10) = 0.18 J/(g·°C), equivalent to 180 J/(kg·°C).

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1983 · Question 39

A cell has an open-circuit terminal voltage of 2.2 V. When a 4 Ω resistor is connected across it, the terminal voltage falls to 2.0 V. What is the internal resistance?

  1. 0.10 ohms
  2. 0.25 ohms
  3. 0.40 ohms
  4. 2.50 ohms
  5. 4.00 ohms.
Answer and explanation

C: 0.40 ohms

The current through the external resistor is I = 2/4 = 0.5 A. The internal voltage drop is 2.2 − 2.0 = 0.2 V, so internal resistance r = 0.2/0.5 = 0.40 Ω.

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1983 · Question 40

QR is a vertical straight conductor, with Q above R. Current flows upwards from R to Q. Point P lies south of the wire in a horizontal plane. What is the direction of the magnetic field at P due to this current?

  1. Upward
  2. North
  3. South
  4. West
  5. East
Answer and explanation

E: East

Point your right thumb upwards along the current. Your curled fingers show the magnetic-field direction around the wire. At a point south of the wire the tangent to this circle points east, so the field at P is eastwards.

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1983 · Question 41

Which of the following best describes the energy changes which take place when a steam engine drives a generator which lights a lamp?

  1. Heat → light → sound → kinetic energy
  2. Kinetic energy → light → heat → electricity
  3. Heat → kinetic energy → electricity → heat and light
  4. Electricity → kinetic energy → heat → light
  5. Heat → sound → kinetic energy → electricity
Answer and explanation

C: Heat → kinetic energy → electricity → heat and light

The steam engine changes thermal energy into mechanical motion. The generator changes that motion into electrical energy, and the lamp changes electrical energy into light and heat.

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1983 · Question 42

A horizontal copper–steel bimetallic strip is fixed at its left end P and free at its right end Q. Copper is above steel. A fixed contact is just above Q; the battery, bell, fixed contact and strip form a series circuit with an open gap at Q. The linear expansivities are 2.0 × 10⁻⁵ K⁻¹ for copper and 1.2 × 10⁻⁵ K⁻¹ for steel. Which statements describe the switching action on heating? I. The arrangement bends away from the contact and cannot close the gap. II. The arrangement bends towards the contact and closes the gap. III. Interchanging the metal layers makes the strip bend towards the contact, allowing the gap to close.

  1. I only
  2. II only
  3. III only
  4. I and III
  5. II and III
Answer and explanation

D: I and III

Copper expands more than steel, so it becomes the outside of the bend. With copper above steel, the free end bends downwards towards the steel side, away from the contact above. Reversing the layers makes it bend upwards, allowing contact. Thus I and III are correct.

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1983 · Question 44

Which of the following may be used to determine relative humidity in a physics laboratory? I Manometer II Wet-and-dry bulb hygrometer III Hair hygrometer IV A hydrometer

  1. I only
  2. II and III only
  3. II only
  4. III only
  5. II, III and IV only
Answer and explanation

B: II and III only

A wet-and-dry bulb hygrometer uses evaporative cooling to determine humidity. A hair hygrometer uses the change in hair length with humidity. A manometer measures pressure; a hydrometer measures liquid density.

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1983 · Question 45

In a vertical side view, a thin rod PQ lies horizontally on a table. A plane mirror RS slopes downwards to the right, making 45° with the horizontal. Its reflecting face is towards the rod and the observer T, who is to the left of the mirror. What is the orientation of the image of the rod?

  1. Horizontal
  2. Parallel to the mirror
  3. At infinity
  4. Vertical
  5. Highly magnified
Answer and explanation

D: Vertical

Reflection in a plane mirror preserves length and reverses the component perpendicular to the mirror. Reflecting a horizontal line in a line inclined at 45° changes its orientation to vertical. The image is finite and the same size as the rod.

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1983 · Question 46

The speed of light in a vacuum is 3.0 × 10⁸ m/s. If a transparent liquid has refractive index 4/3, what is the speed of light in the liquid?

  1. 0.44 × 10⁸ m/s
  2. 2.25 × 10⁸ m/s
  3. 3.0 × 10⁸ m/s
  4. 4.0 × 10⁸ m/s
  5. 4.33 × 10⁸ m/s
Answer and explanation

B: 2.25 × 10⁸ m/s

The refractive index is n = c/v. Therefore v = (3.0 × 10⁸)/(4/3) = 2.25 × 10⁸ m/s.

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1983 · Question 47

A charge of 0.2 C experiences a force of 4 N in an electric field. What is the electric field strength?

  1. 0.8
  2. 0.8 N/C
  3. 20.0 N/C
  4. 4.2 N/C
  5. 20.0 C/N
Answer and explanation

C: 20.0 N/C

Electric field strength is force per unit charge: E = F/q = 4/0.2 = 20 N/C.

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1983 · Question 49

Longitudinal waves do not exhibit

  1. Refraction
  2. Reflection
  3. Diffraction
  4. Polarization
  5. Rarefaction
Answer and explanation

D: Polarization

Polarization requires vibrations perpendicular to the direction of travel. Longitudinal waves vibrate along their direction of travel, so they cannot be polarized.

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1983 · Question 50

An inverted U-tube passes over the rim of an open water tank. Its inlet O is submerged below the water surface W; its other end P is outside the tank and open to the air. For ordinary siphon flow from the tank, which listed conditions are required?

  1. The tube is completely filled with water and P is higher than W
  2. P is lower than both O and W
  3. P is lower than W and O reaches the tank bottom
  4. The tube is completely filled with water and P is lower than W
  5. The tube is completely filled with water and O reaches the tank bottom
Answer and explanation

D: The tube is completely filled with water and P is lower than W

A continuous water column must first fill the tube, and the outlet P must be below the tank’s water surface W for gravity to drive outward flow. The inlet O only needs to remain submerged; it need not reach the bottom, and P need not be lower than O.

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