JAMB Economics 1988

26 reviewed questions with answers and explanations.

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Question 1

Scarcity in economics means that

  1. Human wants are limitless
  2. The economy has very few resources
  3. The economy can scarcely produce anything
  4. Resources are limited in relation to wants
Answer and explanation

D: Resources are limited in relation to wants

Scarcity is relative: available resources are limited compared with the wants people seek to satisfy. It does not mean that an economy has no resources or cannot produce goods.

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Question 2

Economics is often described as a science because

  1. Laboratory experiments are performed
  2. It makes use of controlled experiments
  3. It uses scientific methods to explain observed phenomena and predict future events
  4. It makes use of field work
Answer and explanation

C: It uses scientific methods to explain observed phenomena and predict future events

Economics applies systematic observation, models and evidence to explain economic behaviour and assess predictions. Its scientific method is not limited to laboratory experiments.

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Question 4

Ufuoma prefers a pair of shoes to a wristwatch, the wristwatch to a pair of trousers, and the trousers to the shoes. This preference ordering is

  1. Rational
  2. Consistent
  3. Inconsistent
  4. Transitive
Answer and explanation

C: Inconsistent

The preferences form a cycle: shoes are preferred to the watch, the watch to trousers, and trousers back to shoes. This violates transitivity, so the preference ordering is inconsistent.

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Question 5

Air is essential to life but commands no price! Diamond is not essential to life but commands a high price! This is the paradox of

  1. Thrift
  2. Value
  3. Abundance
  4. Scarcity
Answer and explanation

B: Value

The paradox of value contrasts a necessity with a low price and a less essential good with a high price. Prices relate to marginal utility and scarcity, rather than to the total usefulness of all available units.

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Question 7

Developments outside a given firm which reduce the firm costs are called

  1. Internal economies
  2. External economies
  3. External diseconomies
  4. Optimum effects
Answer and explanation

B: External economies

External economies are cost advantages arising outside the individual firm, such as shared infrastructure or specialised suppliers. They differ from internal economies generated by expanding or reorganising the firm itself.

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Question 8

Which of the following best describes a production function?

  1. It indicates the best output to produce
  2. It relates naira inputs to naira outputs
  3. It relates physical outputs to physical inputs
  4. It indicates the best way to combine factors to produce any given output
Answer and explanation

C: It relates physical outputs to physical inputs

A production function describes the relationship between physical inputs and the output that can be produced with a given technology. It is not a relationship between the monetary values of inputs and outputs.

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Question 10

The Law of Diminishing Returns begins to operate when

  1. Total product begins to rise
  2. Total products begins to fall
  3. Marginal product begins to fall
  4. Marginal product begins to rise
Answer and explanation

C: Marginal product begins to fall

Diminishing marginal returns begin when an additional unit of the variable input adds less output than the preceding unit, while other inputs are fixed. Total output can still rise even as marginal product falls.

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Question 12

Total fixed cost measures the cost of

  1. All plant and machinery
  2. All assets where quantity cannot be varied in the short run
  3. All assets upon which the firm has control
  4. Property owned by the firm
Answer and explanation

B: All assets where quantity cannot be varied in the short run

Fixed costs relate to inputs that cannot be varied in the short run and do not change with current output. Variable costs instead change as production changes within that period.

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Question 13

The output at which total revenue equals total cost is known as

  1. Profit-maximizing output
  2. Break-even level output
  3. Loss-minimizing output
  4. Least-cost output
Answer and explanation

B: Break-even level output

At break-even output, total revenue exactly covers total cost, leaving zero economic profit. This is distinct from the output that maximises profit, which depends on marginal revenue and marginal cost.

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Question 16

In the standard diminishing-marginal-utility model with satiation and no other constraint, if all goods were free, a rational consumer would consume

  1. An infinite amount of each good
  2. The amount where marginal utility became zero
  3. The same amount as when each good had a price
  4. The amount where marginal utility was the highest
Answer and explanation

B: The amount where marginal utility became zero

In the standard diminishing-marginal-utility model with satiation, a consumer takes free units while they add satisfaction. Consumption stops when an extra unit adds no utility, rather than continuing into negative marginal utility.

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Question 17

With an unchanged upward-sloping supply curve, an upward shift in market demand causes which change in equilibrium price and quantity?

  1. Both the price and the quantity fall
  2. The price rises and the quantity falls
  3. The price falls and the quantity rises
  4. Both the price and the quantity rise
Answer and explanation

D: Both the price and the quantity rise

With an unchanged upward-sloping supply curve, increased demand moves equilibrium to a higher price and a larger quantity. Producers supply more in response to the higher price.

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Question 21

Total revenue is always equal to

  1. Marginal revenue multiplied by the quantity sold
  2. Average revenue plus marginal revenue
  3. Marginal revenue multiplied by marginal cost
  4. Average revenue multiplied by the quantity sold
Answer and explanation

D: Average revenue multiplied by the quantity sold

Average revenue equals total revenue divided by quantity sold. Multiplying average revenue by that quantity gives total revenue; marginal revenue is the change in revenue from another unit.

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Question 24

In the short run, the monopolistic competitor

  1. Always makes profit
  2. Always incurs a loss
  3. Always break-even
  4. May close down
Answer and explanation

D: May close down

A monopolistically competitive firm can earn a profit or a loss in the short run. If operating revenue cannot cover avoidable variable costs, it may shut down rather than continue producing.

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Question 26

The additional revenue obtained by using one more unit of a factor is called

  1. Average product
  2. Marginal product
  3. Diminishing returns
  4. Marginal revenue product
Answer and explanation

D: Marginal revenue product

Marginal revenue product is the extra revenue earned from using one more unit of an input. It measures the revenue contribution of that factor, rather than simply its physical output.

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Question 29

Under partnership, investors who have no desires to be actively involved in the day-to-day management of such organisations, are called

  1. Stockbrokers
  2. Sleeping partners
  3. Part-time investors
  4. Ordinary partners
Answer and explanation

B: Sleeping partners

Sleeping partners invest in a partnership but do not take an active role in its day-to-day management. Their ownership role differs from acting as a stockbroker or simply working part-time.

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Question 30

Localization of industries refers to the

  1. Tendency to concentrate industries in particular areas
  2. Sitting of industries in certain areas
  3. Deliberate policy of influencing location of industries generally
  4. Zoning of industries
Answer and explanation

A: Tendency to concentrate industries in particular areas

Industrial localisation is the concentration of firms or industries in particular geographical areas. It describes the clustering pattern, rather than merely selecting a site for one factory.

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Question 31

Restriction on credit creation by commercial banks can be effected through

  1. An overdraft
  2. Loans and advances
  3. Demand deposits
  4. Liquidity ratio
Answer and explanation

D: Liquidity ratio

A required liquidity ratio sets the minimum share of specified liquid assets a bank must hold. Tightening this requirement can restrict how much of its resources is available for lending.

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Question 33

In any economy, what is used as money is determined by

  1. Government acceptance of a commodity standard
  2. Government acceptance of an inconvertible paper standard
  3. Laws and customs
  4. Its use as a store of value
Answer and explanation

C: Laws and customs

What people accept as money depends on institutional rules and established social acceptance. Laws and customs cover monetary arrangements more broadly than any one commodity or paper standard.

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Question 36

Which of the following is a direct tax?

  1. Sales tax
  2. Purchase tax
  3. Export duties
  4. Property tax
Answer and explanation

D: Property tax

A property tax is imposed directly on ownership or value of property. Sales taxes, purchase taxes and export duties are charged on transactions or goods and are classified as indirect taxes here.

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Question 38

When a nation is experiencing balance of payments surplus, it is in a better position to

  1. Increase its foreign exchange reserves
  2. Increase its liabilities to foreigners
  3. Reduce its foreign exchange reserves
  4. Devalue its national currency
Answer and explanation

A: Increase its foreign exchange reserves

An external-payments surplus before official reserve financing can provide foreign currency for accumulation of reserves. Increasing reserves strengthens the stock of foreign assets available to the monetary authorities.

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Question 39

Which of the following is a good example of invisible item on balance of payments account?

  1. Shipping and aviation
  2. Exports and imports
  3. Merchandise
  4. Bullion
Answer and explanation

A: Shipping and aviation

Shipping and aviation transport services are classified as invisible trade in the traditional balance-of-payments terminology. Merchandise and bullion are physical goods rather than transport services.

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Question 41

The Malthusian theory of population predicts that growth in food production will

  1. Keep pace with population growth
  2. Be at a faster rate than population growth
  3. Be at a slower rate than population growth
  4. Be more rapid than population growth in the development countries
Answer and explanation

C: Be at a slower rate than population growth

Malthus proposed that unchecked population could grow geometrically while food production grew arithmetically. In that theory, food production grows more slowly than population, creating pressure on subsistence.

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Question 42

If aggregate income is N500.00 and aggregate consumption is N400.00, this means that the average propensity to consume is

  1. 0.20
  2. 0.80
  3. 1.25
  4. 2.00
Answer and explanation

B: 0.80

The average propensity to consume is total consumption divided by total income. Here APC=400/500=0.80, meaning80% of aggregate income is consumed.

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Question 43

Which of the following items is subtracted when computing Gross National Product at factor cost, by the expenditure method?

  1. Consumption expenditure
  2. Indirect taxes
  3. Exports and property income from abroad,
  4. Gross Domestic Fixed Capital Formation
Answer and explanation

B: Indirect taxes

Expenditure measures output at market prices. To move to factor cost, subtract indirect taxes and add subsidies, because these create a difference between what buyers pay and what producers receive for factor services.

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Question 45

In estimating the national income of a country, the three approaches usually adopted are the

  1. Expenditure, value-added and output
  2. Income, final product and output
  3. Expenditure, income and output
  4. Avoidance of double counting, final expenditure and value-added
Answer and explanation

C: Expenditure, income and output

National income can be measured through expenditure on final output, incomes generated in production, or the value of output produced. These approaches describe the same economic activity from different sides.

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Question 49

Collectivism refers to the system of management of state enterprises in a

  1. Mixed economy
  2. Co-operative organization
  3. Capitalist economic system
  4. Socialist economy
Answer and explanation

D: Socialist economy

Collectivism emphasises collective ownership and control of productive resources. In the classification used here, state ownership and management of enterprises are associated with a socialist economy.

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