JAMB Chemistry 1992

32 reviewed questions with answers and explanations.

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Question 2

Why can a metal have a large temperature interval between melting and boiling?

  1. All metals have very high melting points
  2. Metals conduct heat rapidly
  3. Metallic cohesion remains in the liquid, while boiling separates the atoms
  4. Metal crystal lattices are easily broken
Answer and explanation

C: Metallic cohesion remains in the liquid, while boiling separates the atoms

Liquid metal still has strong attraction between its atoms and delocalised electrons. Melting permits atoms to move past one another, while boiling separates them into the gas phase and overcomes much more of this cohesion. This helps explain why vaporisation needs much more energy.

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Question 4

Balance wH₂SO₄ + xAl(OH)₃ → yH₂O + zAl₂(SO₄)₃ using the smallest whole-number coefficients. What are w, x, y and z?

  1. 2, 2, 5, 1
  2. 3, 2, 5, 2
  3. 3, 2, 6, 1
  4. 2, 2, 6, 2
Answer and explanation

C: 3, 2, 6, 1

One Al₂(SO₄)₃ unit requires two aluminium atoms and three sulfate groups, giving coefficients 2 for Al(OH)₃ and 3 for H₂SO₄. Their 12 hydrogen atoms form 6H₂O. The balanced coefficients are 3, 2, 6 and 1.

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Question 6

100 cm³ of O₂ passes through a porous plug in 50 s. Under the same conditions, how long does the same volume of H₂ take through that plug? [O = 16, H = 1]

  1. 10.0 s
  2. 12.5 s
  3. 17.7 s
  4. 32.0 s
Answer and explanation

B: 12.5 s

For equal volumes under the same conditions, diffusion time is proportional to the square root of molar mass. Thus t(H₂) = 50×√(2/32) = 12.5 s. Hydrogen has one-sixteenth the molar mass of oxygen and diffuses four times as fast.

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Question 7

Which quantity measures the average kinetic energy of a substance’s molecules?

  1. Volume
  2. Mass
  3. Pressure
  4. Temperature
Answer and explanation

D: Temperature

Temperature indicates average molecular kinetic energy. In the ideal-gas model, average translational kinetic energy is proportional to absolute temperature. Volume, mass and pressure are not direct measures of this average energy.

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Question 9

What does the nucleus of tritium, ³H, contain?

  1. Two neutrons and no protons
  2. One neutron and one proton
  3. Two neutrons and one proton
  4. Two neutrons, one proton and one electron
Answer and explanation

C: Two neutrons and one proton

Tritium is hydrogen-3. Hydrogen has atomic number 1, so its nucleus contains one proton. Mass number 3 means there are two additional nucleons, both neutrons. The electron of a neutral tritium atom is outside its nucleus.

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Question 11

In the nuclear equation ¹⁴₇N + X → ¹⁷₈O + ¹₁H, what is X?

  1. A neutron
  2. A helium nucleus
  3. A lithium nucleus
  4. A deuterium nucleus
Answer and explanation

B: A helium nucleus

Conservation of mass number gives 14 + A = 17 + 1, so A = 4. Conservation of atomic number gives 7 + Z = 8 + 1, so Z = 2. X is therefore ⁴₂He, an alpha particle or helium nucleus.

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Question 12

P, Q, R and S have 1, 2, 3 and 7 outer-shell electrons, respectively. Which is least likely to be a metal?

  1. P
  2. Q
  3. R
  4. S
Answer and explanation

D: S

Seven outer-shell electrons are characteristic of the halogens, which are predominantly nonmetals. They tend to gain one electron or share electrons to complete the shell. Having one, two or three outer-shell electrons is more commonly associated with metallic main-group elements.

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Question 14

Which listed gas contributes to acid rain through reactions involving atmospheric water?

  1. Oxygen
  2. Carbon monoxide
  3. Nitrogen
  4. Sulfur dioxide
Answer and explanation

D: Sulfur dioxide

Sulfur dioxide can dissolve in atmospheric water and undergo further oxidation to sulfuric acid. This contributes to acid rain. Oxygen, nitrogen and carbon monoxide are not the listed acid-rain precursor in this comparison.

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Question 15

Chlorination of a town water supply primarily controls which of the following?

  1. Bad odour
  2. Bacteria
  3. Temporary hardness
  4. Permanent hardness
Answer and explanation

B: Bacteria

Chlorination disinfects water by inactivating bacteria and other susceptible microorganisms. It does not remove the dissolved calcium and magnesium ions responsible for hardness. Effective treatment also depends on dose, contact time and water conditions.

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Question 16

Which factors can affect the solubility of a gas in a liquid? I. Nature of the solvent; II. Nature of the solute; III. Temperature; IV. Gas pressure.

  1. I, II, III and IV
  2. I and II only
  3. II only
  4. I, III and IV only
Answer and explanation

A: I, II, III and IV

Gas solubility depends on how the gas and solvent interact, so both chemical identities matter. Temperature changes dissolution equilibrium, and the gas’s partial pressure also affects how much dissolves. All four listed factors can therefore affect solubility.

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Question 20

Which listed substance is an acid salt?

  1. K₂SO₄·Al₂(SO₄)₃·24H₂O
  2. CuCO₃·Cu(OH)₂
  3. NaHS
  4. CaOCl₂
Answer and explanation

C: NaHS

NaHS is sodium hydrogen sulfide. It results from replacing only one of the two acidic hydrogens of H₂S with sodium, leaving a hydrogen in HS⁻. This makes it an acid salt by composition; that classification does not mean its aqueous solution must have pH below 7.

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Question 21

What mass of H₂SO₄ is needed in 0.175 dm³ of 6.00 mol dm⁻³ H₂SO₄ solution? [S = 32.06, O = 16.00, H = 1.00]

  1. 206.0 g
  2. 103.0 g
  3. 98.1 g
  4. 51.5 g
Answer and explanation

B: 103.0 g

The required amount is concentration×volume = 6.00×0.175 = 1.05 mol. H₂SO₄ has molar mass 2(1.00) + 32.06 + 4(16.00) = 98.06 g mol⁻¹. The mass is 1.05×98.06 = 102.963 g, approximately 103.0 g.

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Question 22

Aqueous copper(II) sulfate is electrolysed using carbon electrodes. What are the main products at the anode and cathode, respectively?

  1. Copper and oxygen
  2. Oxygen and copper
  3. Hydrogen and copper
  4. Copper and hydrogen
Answer and explanation

B: Oxygen and copper

At the cathode, Cu²⁺ gains electrons and deposits as copper. At the carbon anode, water is oxidised and oxygen is evolved. Thus the anode product is oxygen and the cathode product is copper.

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Question 23

What theoretical mass of magnesium is produced by electrolysis of magnesium chloride for 24 h at 500 A, assuming all the current deposits magnesium? [F = 96,500 C mol⁻¹; Mg = 24]

  1. 2.7 kg
  2. 5.4 kg
  3. 10.8 kg
  4. 21.7 kg
Answer and explanation

B: 5.4 kg

The charge is 500×24×3600 = 43,200,000 C. Each Mg²⁺ ion needs two electrons, so the magnesium amount is Q/(2F) = 43,200,000/(2×96,500) ≈ 223.8 mol. Its mass is 223.8×24/1000 ≈ 5.4 kg.

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Question 24

In MnO₂ + 2Cl⁻ + 4H⁺ → Mn²⁺ + Cl₂ + 2H₂O, what are the changes in oxidation number per atom of Mn, Cl and H, respectively?

  1. +2, +2, +4
  2. −1, −2, +4
  3. −2, +1, 0
  4. +2, +4, 0
Answer and explanation

C: −2, +1, 0

Manganese changes from +4 in MnO₂ to +2 in Mn²⁺, a change of −2. Chlorine changes from −1 in Cl⁻ to 0 in Cl₂, a change of +1 per atom. Hydrogen stays at +1, so its change is 0. Reduction means manganese gains electrons.

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Question 25

In 2S₂O₃²⁻ + I₂ → S₄O₆²⁻ + 2I⁻, which species is the oxidising agent?

  1. S₂O₃²⁻
  2. I₂
  3. S₄O₆²⁻
  4. I⁻
Answer and explanation

B: I₂

I₂ gains two electrons to form 2I⁻, so iodine is reduced. The species that is reduced is the oxidising agent. Thiosulfate donates electrons and is oxidised to tetrathionate.

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Question 27

At the same temperature, how are the equilibrium constants for a reaction and its exact reverse related?

  1. Their sum is 1
  2. Their product is 1
  3. They are identical
  4. Their product is always greater than 1
Answer and explanation

B: Their product is 1

Reversing a reaction swaps the numerator and denominator of its equilibrium expression. At the same temperature, K_reverse = 1/K_forward. Multiplying the two constants therefore gives 1.

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Question 28

Which equilibrium has no net shift when its volume is decreased at constant temperature?

  1. H₂(g) + I₂(g) ⇌ 2HI(g)
  2. 2NO₂(g) ⇌ N₂O₄(g)
  3. PCl₅(g) ⇌ PCl₃(g) + Cl₂(g)
  4. ZnO(s) + CO₂(g) ⇌ ZnCO₃(s)
Answer and explanation

A: H₂(g) + I₂(g) ⇌ 2HI(g)

H₂(g) + I₂(g) ⇌ 2HI(g) has two moles of gas on each side. Compressing the system changes all concentrations by the same factor, which cancels in the reaction quotient. The other listed equilibria have unequal gas-mole totals and shift when volume changes at constant temperature.

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Question 29

For xP + yQ ⇌ mR + nS, with all species included in the concentration expression, which formula gives Kc?

  1. k[P]ˣ[Q]ʸ
  2. ([P]ˣ[Q]ʸ)/([R]ᵐ[S]ⁿ)
  3. ([R]ᵐ[S]ⁿ)/([P]ˣ[Q]ʸ)
  4. (m[R]n[S])/(x[P]y[Q])
Answer and explanation

C: ([R]ᵐ[S]ⁿ)/([P]ˣ[Q]ʸ)

For xP + yQ ⇌ mR + nS, the concentration expression places product concentrations in the numerator and reactant concentrations in the denominator. Each concentration is raised to its coefficient: Kc = [R]ᵐ[S]ⁿ/([P]ˣ[Q]ʸ).

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Question 32

Which listed combinations are conventional fuel–oxygen pairs used for metal welding? I. Oxygen and ethyne; II. Hydrogen and ethyne; III. Hydrogen and oxygen; IV. Ethyne, hydrogen and oxygen.

  1. I and II
  2. III and IV
  3. I and III
  4. II and IV
Answer and explanation

C: I and III

Oxygen with ethyne forms the oxyacetylene flame used in gas welding. Oxygen with hydrogen forms an oxyhydrogen flame that can join suitable lower-melting metals. Hydrogen and ethyne alone are both fuels and do not supply the oxidising gas needed for these conventional torch combinations.

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Question 34

The gas formed when ammonium trioxonitrate (V) is heated with sodium hydroxide is

  1. hydrogen
  2. nitrogen(1V) oxide
  3. oxygen
  4. ammonia
Answer and explanation

D: ammonia

Hydroxide ions remove a proton from ammonium ions, releasing ammonia: NH₄⁺ + OH⁻ → NH₃ + H₂O. The full equation is NH₄NO₃ + NaOH → NaNO₃ + NH₃ + H₂O.

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Question 36

Adding aqueous barium chloride to a salt solution gives a white precipitate. Which listed anion could account for this result?

  1. nitrate
  2. carbonate
  3. chloride
  4. sulphide
Answer and explanation

B: carbonate

Carbonate ions form insoluble white barium carbonate: Ba²⁺ + CO₃²⁻ → BaCO₃(s). The listed nitrate, chloride and sulfide alternatives do not give this barium precipitate under the usual aqueous test conditions.

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Question 38

Which of the following is NOT a raw material used to make soda ash in the Solvay process?

  1. Ammonia
  2. Sodium chloride
  3. Calcium carbonate
  4. Sodium carbonate
Answer and explanation

D: Sodium carbonate

Sodium carbonate is the soda-ash product of the Solvay process. Brine supplies sodium chloride and limestone supplies calcium carbonate; ammonia is used and regenerated within the process.

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Question 39

Duralumin consists of aluminum, copper,

  1. zinc and gold
  2. lead and manganese
  3. nickel and silver
  4. manganese and magnesium.
Answer and explanation

D: manganese and magnesium.

Duralumin is an aluminium alloy whose characteristic alloying elements include copper, magnesium and manganese. Thus manganese and magnesium complete the list.

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Question 40

CaO(s) + H₂O(l) → Ca(OH)₂(s), ΔH = −65 kJ. What is this process called?

  1. Dissolution
  2. Slaking
  3. Liming
  4. Mortaring
Answer and explanation

B: Slaking

Slaking is the reaction of quicklime, CaO, with water to form slaked lime, Ca(OH)₂. The negative enthalpy change means heat is released.

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Question 41

The carbon atoms in ethane are

  1. sp³ hybridised
  2. sp hybridised
  3. sp² hybridised
  4. Not hybridised
Answer and explanation

A: sp³ hybridised

Each carbon atom in ethane makes four sigma bonds: three C–H bonds and one C–C bond. Its four bonding directions are approximately tetrahedral, described by sp³ hybridisation.

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Question 42

What is the IUPAC name of CH₃CH₂C(CH₃)=CHCH₂CH(CH₃)CH₃?

  1. 2-ethyl-5-methylhex-2-ene
  2. 2,5-dimethylhex-2-ene
  3. 3,5-dimethylhept-3-ene
  4. 3,6-dimethylhept-3-ene
Answer and explanation

D: 3,6-dimethylhept-3-ene

The longest chain containing the double bond has seven carbon atoms. Numbering from the nearer end gives the double bond locant 3 and methyl substituents at carbons 3 and 6. The name is 3,6-dimethylhept-3-ene.

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Question 43

Which of the following compounds is a secondary alkanol?

  1. CH₃CH₂CH(OH)CH₃
  2. (CH₃)₃COH
  3. CH₃CH₂CH₂CH₂OH
  4. CH₃CH₂OCH₂CH₃
Answer and explanation

A: CH₃CH₂CH(OH)CH₃

In CH₃CH₂CH(OH)CH₃, the carbon bearing the hydroxyl group is bonded to two other carbon atoms, so it is secondary. (CH₃)₃COH is tertiary, CH₃CH₂CH₂CH₂OH is primary, and CH₃CH₂OCH₂CH₃ is an ether.

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Question 45

Which of the following are isomers?

  1. Ethanol and dimethyl ether
  2. Benzene and methylbenzene
  3. Ethanol and propanone
  4. Trichloromethane and tetrachloromethane
Answer and explanation

A: Ethanol and dimethyl ether

Ethanol and dimethyl ether both have molecular formula C₂H₆O, but different connectivity: CH₃CH₂OH and CH₃OCH₃. They are functional-group isomers. The other pairs have different molecular formulae.

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Question 46

The functional group present in an organic compound which gives bubbles on treatment with a saturated solution of NaHCO₃ is the

  1. Hydroxyl group
  2. Carboalkoxyl group
  3. Carbonyl group
  4. Carboxyl group
Answer and explanation

D: Carboxyl group

A carboxylic acid reacts with sodium hydrogencarbonate to release carbon dioxide bubbles: RCOOH + NaHCO₃ → RCOONa + H₂O + CO₂. This effervescence identifies the carboxyl group among the choices.

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Question 49

Alkanals can be differentiated from alkanones by reaction with.

  1. 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazine
  2. Hydrogen cyanide
  3. Sodium hydrogensulfite
  4. Tollens’ reagent
Answer and explanation

D: Tollens’ reagent

Tollens’ reagent is reduced to metallic silver by an alkanal, producing a silver mirror or silver deposit. Ordinary alkanones do not give this test. Both classes can react with the other carbonyl reagents listed.

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Question 50

An example of a polysaccharide is

  1. Dextrose
  2. Mannose
  3. Glucose
  4. Starch
Answer and explanation

D: Starch

Starch contains many glucose units joined by glycosidic bonds, making it a polysaccharide. Glucose (also called dextrose) and mannose are monosaccharides.

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