JAMB Chemistry 1987

31 reviewed questions with answers and explanations.

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Question 2

Which of the following substances is a mixture?

  1. Granulated sugar
  2. Seawater
  3. Sodium chloride
  4. Iron filings
Answer and explanation

B: Seawater

Seawater contains water together with dissolved salts and other substances. Its components are not combined in one fixed chemical ratio, so it is a mixture. Sugar and sodium chloride are compounds; iron is an element.

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Question 5

Oxygen occupies a fixed 2.76 litre container at 0.825 atm and 300 K. Half the amount of gas is removed while the temperature remains 300 K. What pressure does the remaining gas exert?

  1. 1.650 atm
  2. 0.825 atm
  3. 0.413 atm
  4. 0.275 atm
Answer and explanation

C: 0.413 atm

For an ideal gas at constant volume and temperature, P = nRT/V, so pressure is proportional to the amount of gas. Halving the amount halves the pressure: 0.825/2 = 0.4125 atm, which rounds to 0.413 atm.

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Question 6

Which substance has the lowest vapour density when compared under the same conditions? [C = 12, H = 1, O = 16, Cl = 35.5]

  1. Ethanoic acid
  2. Propanol
  3. Dichloromethane
  4. Ethanal
Answer and explanation

D: Ethanal

At equal temperature and pressure, vapour density is proportional to molar mass. Ethanal, C₂H₄O, has molar mass 44; ethanoic acid and propanol each have 60, and dichloromethane has 85. Ethanal therefore has the lowest vapour density.

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Question 9

Elements X and Y have atomic numbers 12 and 9 respectively. What type of bonding occurs in their compound?

  1. Ionic
  2. Covalent
  3. Neutral
  4. Coordinate
Answer and explanation

A: Ionic

Atomic numbers 12 and 9 identify magnesium and fluorine. Magnesium loses two electrons to form Mg²⁺, while two fluorine atoms each gain one electron to form F⁻. Their electrostatic attraction forms ionic MgF₂.

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Question 10

Element Z consists of 90% ¹⁶₈Z and 10% ¹⁸₈Z. Using the mass numbers as isotope masses, what is its relative atomic mass?

  1. 16.0
  2. 16.2
  3. 17.0
  4. 17.8
Answer and explanation

B: 16.2

Relative atomic mass is the abundance-weighted mean of isotopic masses: (0.90 × 16) + (0.10 × 18) = 16.2.

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Question 11

As the electronegativity difference between bonded atoms increases, which statement is generally correct?

  1. The bond polarity decreases
  2. The bond polarity increases
  3. The bond becomes weaker
  4. The substance is more likely to consist of molecules
Answer and explanation

B: The bond polarity increases

A larger electronegativity difference causes the bonding electrons to be shared less equally. The resulting partial charges are larger, so the bond is more polar.

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Question 13

What is the principal role of alum in treatment of a town water supply?

  1. To kill bacteria
  2. To control water pH
  3. To improve water taste
  4. To coagulate fine mud particles
Answer and explanation

D: To coagulate fine mud particles

Alum helps fine suspended particles clump together into larger flocs that can settle or be filtered out. This coagulation step removes suspended matter; it is distinct from disinfection.

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Question 16

The solubility of Na₃AsO₄·12H₂O is 38.9 g per 100 g of water. What is the mass percentage of Na₃AsO₄ in the saturated solution? [Na = 23, As = 75, O = 16, H = 1]

  1. 87.2%
  2. 38.9%
  3. 19.1%
  4. 13.7%
Answer and explanation

D: 13.7%

Na₃AsO₄ has molar mass 3×23 + 75 + 4×16 = 208 g mol⁻¹. The hydrate has mass 208 + 12×18 = 424 g mol⁻¹. Thus 38.9 g hydrate contains 38.9×208/424 = 19.08 g Na₃AsO₄. The solution mass is 100 + 38.9 = 138.9 g, giving 19.08/138.9×100 = 13.7%.

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Question 17

Which pair of reported observations is correct for fresh lime juice and ethanol respectively?

  1. Adding NaHCO₃: gas evolves; no gas evolves
  2. Methyl orange: turns colourless; no change
  3. Taste: bitter; sour
  4. Adding sodium: no gas evolves; hydrogen evolves
Answer and explanation

A: Adding NaHCO₃: gas evolves; no gas evolves

Lime juice contains acids that react with bicarbonate to release CO₂. Ethanol is not acidic enough to release CO₂ from sodium bicarbonate. Thus gas forms with lime juice but not with ethanol.

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Question 20

A 24.83 cm³ sample of 0.15 mol dm⁻³ NaOH requires 39.45 cm³ of HCl to reach equivalence. What is the HCl concentration?

  1. 0.094 mol dm⁻³
  2. 0.150 mol dm⁻³
  3. 0.940 mol dm⁻³
  4. 1.500 mol dm⁻³
Answer and explanation

A: 0.094 mol dm⁻³

HCl and NaOH react in a 1:1 mole ratio. At equivalence, c(HCl) = 0.15 × 24.83/39.45 = 0.09441 mol dm⁻³, corresponding to 0.094 mol dm⁻³.

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Question 23

What mass of magnesium is deposited when 2 A flows for 2 hours 30 minutes through molten MgCl₂? Assume 100% current efficiency. [Mg = 24; F = 96500 C mol⁻¹]

  1. 1.12 g
  2. 2.00 g
  3. 2.24 g
  4. 4.48 g
Answer and explanation

C: 2.24 g

The time is 2.5×3600 = 9000 s, so charge is 2×9000 = 18000 C. Mg²⁺ requires two electrons, giving mass = 18000×24/(2×96500) = 2.238 g, or 2.24 g.

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Question 24

For 3CuO + 2NH₃ → 3Cu + 3H₂O + N₂, how many electrons are transferred per mole of copper produced? Use Avogadro constant 6.0 × 10²³ mol⁻¹.

  1. 4.0 × 10⁻²³
  2. 3.0 × 10⁻²³
  3. 1.2 × 10²⁴
  4. 6.0 × 10²⁴
Answer and explanation

C: 1.2 × 10²⁴

Copper in CuO has oxidation state +2 and gains two electrons to become Cu. One mole of copper therefore requires two moles of electrons: 2×6.0×10²³ = 1.2×10²⁴ electrons.

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Question 26

Dissolving 5 g of NH₄NO₃ in water absorbs 1.6 kJ from the water and container. What is its molar enthalpy of solution? [N = 14, O = 16, H = 1]

  1. +51.4 kJ mol⁻¹
  2. +25.6 kJ mol⁻¹
  3. +12.9 kJ mol⁻¹
  4. −6.4 kJ mol⁻¹
Answer and explanation

B: +25.6 kJ mol⁻¹

The molar mass of NH₄NO₃ is 80 g mol⁻¹, so 5 g is 0.0625 mol. Cooling the surroundings means the dissolution absorbs heat. Its enthalpy is +1.6/0.0625 = +25.6 kJ mol⁻¹.

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Question 27

Calculate the enthalpy change for SO₃(g) + H₂O(l) → H₂SO₄(l), given formation enthalpies of −395, −286 and −811 kJ mol⁻¹ respectively.

  1. −1032 kJ mol⁻¹
  2. −130 kJ mol⁻¹
  3. +130 kJ mol⁻¹
  4. +1032 kJ mol⁻¹
Answer and explanation

B: −130 kJ mol⁻¹

By Hess’s law, reaction enthalpy equals product formation enthalpy minus the total for reactants: −811 − [(−395) + (−286)] = −130 kJ mol⁻¹. The negative sign means heat is released.

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Question 29

For 2SO₂(g) + O₂(g) ⇌ 2SO₃(g), ΔH = −196 kJ, which change increases the equilibrium yield of SO₃?

  1. Adding a suitable catalyst
  2. Increasing the reaction temperature
  3. Decreasing the reaction temperature
  4. Decreasing the SO₂ concentration
Answer and explanation

C: Decreasing the reaction temperature

The forward reaction is exothermic. Lowering the equilibrium temperature favours the heat-producing direction, increasing the equilibrium yield of SO₃. A catalyst speeds approach to equilibrium without changing the equilibrium yield.

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Question 30

Which ionic equation represents chlorine reacting with hot concentrated aqueous sodium hydroxide?

  1. Cl₂(g) + 2OH⁻(g) → OCl⁻(aq) + Cl⁻(aq) + H₂O(l)
  2. 3Cl₂(g) + 6OH⁻(aq) → ClO₃⁻(aq) + 5Cl⁻(aq) + 3H₂O(l)
  3. 3Cl₂(g) + 6OH⁻(aq) → ClO₃⁻(s) + 5Cl⁻(aq) + 3H₂O(l)
  4. 3Cl₂(g) + 6OH⁻(aq) → 5ClO₃⁻(aq) + Cl⁻(aq) + 3H₂O(l)
Answer and explanation

B: 3Cl₂(g) + 6OH⁻(aq) → ClO₃⁻(aq) + 5Cl⁻(aq) + 3H₂O(l)

Hot concentrated alkali converts chlorine into chloride and chlorate(V): 3Cl₂ + 6OH⁻ → ClO₃⁻ + 5Cl⁻ + 3H₂O. Chlorine is both oxidised to +5 and reduced to −1, so the reaction is disproportionation.

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Question 31

Magnesium burns in gas P to form a solid residue Q. Adding water to Q releases a gas that forms dense white fumes with hydrogen chloride. What is gas P?

  1. Nitrogen
  2. Chlorine
  3. Oxygen
  4. Sulfur dioxide
Answer and explanation

A: Nitrogen

Magnesium reacts with nitrogen to form Mg₃N₂. Water hydrolyses this nitride: Mg₃N₂ + 6H₂O → 3Mg(OH)₂ + 2NH₃. The ammonia gives dense white NH₄Cl fumes with HCl, identifying the original gas as nitrogen.

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Question 32

A student accidentally spills concentrated sulfuric acid on their skin. Which should be used immediately to flush the affected area?

  1. Plenty of cool running water
  2. Sodium hydroxide solution
  3. Iodine solution
  4. Sodium carbonate solution
Answer and explanation

A: Plenty of cool running water

Immediately flush the affected skin with plenty of running water and remove contaminated clothing while rinsing. Alert the teacher and obtain medical attention. Do not try to neutralise the acid on the skin with an alkali; the reaction can add heat and worsen the injury.

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Question 33

Which pair consists of elements that both have familiar allotropes under ordinary conditions?

  1. Phosphorus and hydrogen
  2. Oxygen and chlorine
  3. Sulfur and nitrogen
  4. Oxygen and sulfur
Answer and explanation

D: Oxygen and sulfur

Oxygen has the allotropes O₂ and O₃. Sulfur also has distinct structural forms, including rhombic and monoclinic sulfur. Thus both elements in the oxygen–sulfur pair exhibit allotropy under ordinary conditions.

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Question 34

Which gases are suitable for the classic water-fountain experiment? (i) Nitrogen (ii) Ammonia (iii) Nitrogen(I) oxide (iv) Hydrogen chloride

  1. (ii) and (iii)
  2. (i) and (iii)
  3. (ii) and (iv)
  4. (ii) only
Answer and explanation

C: (ii) and (iv)

Ammonia and hydrogen chloride are highly soluble in water. When either dissolves rapidly inside the flask, the pressure falls and outside air pressure pushes water in, producing a fountain. Nitrogen and nitrous oxide are much less suitable.

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Question 35

Ammonia is produced by heating calcium hydroxide with ammonium sulfate. Which treatment dries the gas before collection?

  1. Bubbling it through concentrated H₂SO₄
  2. Bubbling it through water, then passing it through CaO
  3. Passing it directly through CaO
  4. Passing it directly through CaCl₂
Answer and explanation

C: Passing it directly through CaO

Heating an ammonium salt with calcium hydroxide releases ammonia. It can be dried by passing it directly through calcium oxide. Water absorbs ammonia, while concentrated sulfuric acid and calcium chloride react with it.

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Question 37

Which listed set of elements is characteristic of stainless steel?

  1. Iron, carbon and silver
  2. Iron, carbon and lead
  3. Iron, carbon and chromium
  4. Iron and carbon only
Answer and explanation

C: Iron, carbon and chromium

Stainless steel is an iron-based alloy containing carbon and chromium. Chromium forms a protective oxide layer that improves corrosion resistance. Some grades contain additional elements such as nickel.

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Question 38

Which option describes the usual melt-based method of preparing an alloy?

  1. Arc welding the metals together
  2. Electrolysis with the main metal as cathode
  3. Reducing a mixture of the elements’ oxides
  4. Cooling a molten mixture of the required elements
Answer and explanation

D: Cooling a molten mixture of the required elements

A common way to make an alloy is to mix the constituent elements in a molten metallic mixture and then allow it to solidify. Mixing them before solidification distributes the components through the alloy.

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Question 39

Which is the broadest correct statement about metals capable of corrosion in a suitable environment?

  1. Iron only
  2. Electropositive metals only
  3. Only metals below hydrogen in the electrochemical series
  4. All metals
Answer and explanation

D: All metals

All metals can suffer corrosion in a suitable environment, although their resistance differs greatly. Even noble metals can be attacked under particular conditions. Rusting is the specific corrosion of iron, not the name for all metal corrosion.

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Question 40

Carbon has ground-state configuration 1s²2s²2p². Which statement about its 2s and 2p orbitals is consistent with the valence-bond explanation of four equivalent bonds in methane?

  1. The separate 2s and 2p orbitals initially have equal energies
  2. Electrons in the separate 2s and 2p orbitals are already equivalent
  3. The 2s and 2p orbitals hybridise
  4. Six orbitals hybridise to make four orbitals
Answer and explanation

C: The 2s and 2p orbitals hybridise

Carbon has four valence electrons. In the valence-bond description of methane, one 2s orbital and three 2p orbitals mix to form four sp³ hybrid orbitals, each used in a C–H bond. This accounts for four equivalent tetrahedral bonds.

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Question 42

Increasing which component generally improves the knock resistance of petrol in a high-compression internal combustion engine?

  1. Branched-chain alkanes
  2. Straight-chain alkanes
  3. Cycloalkanes
  4. Halogenated hydrocarbons
Answer and explanation

A: Branched-chain alkanes

Branched alkanes generally resist premature autoignition better than corresponding straight-chain alkanes. This increases knock resistance, allowing a petrol engine to operate more effectively at high compression.

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Question 44

Ethanol reacts with aqueous sodium hypoiodite to give a yellow solid with a characteristic smell. What is the solid?

  1. Trichloromethane
  2. Triiodomethane
  3. Iodoethane
  4. Ethanal
Answer and explanation

B: Triiodomethane

Ethanol gives the iodoform reaction with alkaline iodine/hypoiodite. The yellow precipitate is CHI₃, called triiodomethane or iodoform. The other listed compounds are not the yellow solid formed in this test.

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Question 45

Which set contains only components of the most volatile fraction obtained from crude petroleum?

  1. Butane, propane and kerosene
  2. Butane, propane and petrol
  3. Ethane, methane and benzene
  4. Ethane, methane and propane
Answer and explanation

D: Ethane, methane and propane

Methane, ethane and propane are small hydrocarbons with very low boiling points. They belong to the light gaseous fraction. Petrol, kerosene and benzene boil at higher temperatures and are not all part of the most volatile fraction.

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Question 46

Local black soap is made by boiling palm oil with an aqueous extract of ash. What does the ash principally provide?

  1. Acid
  2. An alkanoic-acid ester
  3. Alkali
  4. Alkanol
Answer and explanation

C: Alkali

The aqueous ash extract supplies alkaline substances. These react with fats in palm oil during saponification to form fatty-acid salts, which are soap. The palm oil supplies the fat, while the ash supplies the alkali.

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Question 47

Which listed monomer can be polymerised to make a synthetic rubber?

  1. 2-Methylbuta-1,3-diene
  2. 2-Methylbuta-1,2-diene
  3. 2-Methylbut-1-ene
  4. 2-Methylbut-2-ene
Answer and explanation

A: 2-Methylbuta-1,3-diene

2-Methylbuta-1,3-diene is isoprene, a conjugated diene. Its molecules can polymerise into polyisoprene, a rubber. The conjugated double bonds make it a suitable rubber monomer.

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Question 48

Complete oxidation of propan-1-ol to its corresponding carboxylic acid gives

  1. Propanal
  2. Propan-2-al
  3. Propan-1-one
  4. Propanoic acid
Answer and explanation

D: Propanoic acid

Oxidation of a primary alcohol first gives an aldehyde and then a carboxylic acid when oxidation continues. Propan-1-ol therefore gives propanoic acid, retaining its three-carbon chain.

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