JAMB Biology 1985

36 reviewed questions with answers and explanations.

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Question 3

Which of the following is seed-bearing?

  1. Moss
  2. Whistling pine
  3. Algal filament
  4. Liverwort
  5. Fern
Answer and explanation

B: Whistling pine

Whistling pine, a Casuarina tree, produces seeds. Despite its common name, it is a flowering plant rather than a true pine. Mosses, liverworts and ferns reproduce by spores rather than seeds, and the listed algal filament is not a seed plant.

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Question 4

Each of the following is an arthropod EXCEPT the

  1. Crab
  2. Spider
  3. Snail
  4. Millipede
  5. Cockroach
Answer and explanation

C: Snail

A snail belongs to the molluscs. The other animals are arthropods, which share a segmented body, a cuticular exoskeleton and jointed appendages. A shell alone does not make an animal an arthropod.

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Question 5

In fish, the sensory structures that detect movement and vibration in the surrounding water are associated with the

  1. Gills
  2. Operculum
  3. Nostrils
  4. Median fins
  5. Lateral line
Answer and explanation

E: Lateral line

The lateral-line system contains mechanosensory receptors that respond to nearby water movement and vibration. It helps a fish detect surrounding disturbances. Gills exchange gases, the operculum covers the gills, and nostrils are associated with smell.

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Question 6

A photosynthetic Euglena shows autotrophic nutrition because it

  1. Has flagella
  2. Has both plant-like and animal-like features
  3. Is found in water
  4. Can manufacture its own organic food
  5. Moves rapidly
Answer and explanation

D: Can manufacture its own organic food

In suitable light, a photosynthetic Euglena uses light energy to make organic food from carbon dioxide. This is autotrophic nutrition. Some Euglena are mixotrophs and can also obtain organic nutrients from their environment.

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Question 7

Which statement about Mucor is NOT true? It

  1. Contains chlorophyll
  2. Can grow saprophytically
  3. Bears spores in sporangia
  4. Consists of hyphae
  5. Can reproduce sexually by fusion of compatible hyphae
Answer and explanation

A: Contains chlorophyll

Mucor is a fungus and does not contain chlorophyll. It obtains nutrients by external digestion and absorption. Its body consists of hyphae; sporangia produce asexual spores, and compatible hyphae can participate in sexual reproduction.

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Question 8

Bryophytes differ from flowering plants because bryophytes

  1. Live in moist habitats
  2. Are small plants
  3. Reproduce both sexually and asexually
  4. Have small leaves
  5. Lack true vascular tissues
Answer and explanation

E: Lack true vascular tissues

Bryophytes lack the true xylem and phloem of vascular plants. Flowering plants possess these tissues. Moist habitats, small size and both modes of reproduction are not unique to bryophytes; some mosses have specialised conducting cells without true vascular tissue.

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Question 10

In mosses, which structures anchor the plant to its substrate, performing a supporting role comparable to that of roots?

  1. Root hairs
  2. Rootlets
  3. Hyphae
  4. Rhizoids
  5. Thalli
Answer and explanation

D: Rhizoids

Rhizoids help anchor a moss to its substrate. They are not true roots and do not provide the same vascular transport system. Much water absorption in mosses occurs across the plant surface rather than through a root system.

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Question 11

In a typical dorsiventral angiosperm leaf, where is the xylem positioned relative to the phloem in a vascular bundle?

  1. Beside the phloem at the same level
  2. Surrounded by the phloem
  3. Above the phloem, towards the upper leaf surface
  4. Around the phloem
  5. In a separate bundle from the phloem
Answer and explanation

C: Above the phloem, towards the upper leaf surface

The xylem is usually on the upper, or adaxial, side of a typical leaf vascular bundle, with phloem towards the lower side. Xylem delivers water and mineral ions; phloem transports sugars and other organic substances.

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Question 13

Which feature is normally present in both a young dicot stem and a typical monocot root?

  1. Medullary rays
  2. Central pith
  3. A wide cortex
  4. A narrow cortex
  5. Pericyclic fibres
Answer and explanation

B: Central pith

A typical young dicot stem has vascular bundles arranged around central pith. A typical monocot root also has pith at its centre, surrounded by vascular tissues. Cortex width and the arrangement of rays or fibres do not provide the same shared defining comparison.

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Question 16

A prolonged dietary calcium deficiency in a growing child may contribute to

  1. Anaemia
  2. Impaired skeletal growth
  3. Sterility
  4. Goitre
  5. Beriberi
Answer and explanation

B: Impaired skeletal growth

Calcium is a major mineral component of bone. Inadequate calcium can impair normal bone mineralisation and skeletal development. This effect differs from the classic deficiency associations of iron with anaemia, iodine with goitre and thiamine with beriberi.

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Question 17

Partially digested food mixed with gastric secretions and ready to leave the stomach is called

  1. Chyme
  2. Curd
  3. Glycogen
  4. Paste
  5. Roughage
Answer and explanation

A: Chyme

Chyme is the semifluid mixture formed as food is churned with gastric secretions. It passes through the pylorus into the duodenum in controlled amounts. Glycogen is a storage carbohydrate, and roughage refers to dietary fibre.

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Question 18

One important function of lymph nodes is to

  1. Supply oxygen
  2. Filter lymph and help remove bacteria
  3. Form red blood cells
  4. Supply amino acids
  5. Supply simple sugars
Answer and explanation

B: Filter lymph and help remove bacteria

Lymph passes through nodes containing macrophages and lymphocytes. These structures filter lymph and support immune responses to microbes and foreign material. Red blood-cell formation normally takes place in bone marrow, while oxygen is transported mainly by blood.

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Question 19

Which large vein returns blood from the head and arms towards the right atrium of the heart?

  1. Aorta
  2. Inferior vena cava
  3. Superior vena cava
  4. Pulmonary vein
  5. Pulmonary artery
Answer and explanation

C: Superior vena cava

Veins from the head and upper limbs drain into the brachiocephalic veins and then the superior vena cava. This vessel enters the right atrium. The inferior vena cava returns blood chiefly from the lower body, and pulmonary veins return blood from the lungs.

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Question 21

Considering ABO compatibility only for red-cell transfusion, which blood group can receive red cells from all four ABO groups?

  1. O
  2. A
  3. B
  4. AB
  5. AS
Answer and explanation

D: AB

Group AB has both A and B antigens and normally lacks anti-A and anti-B antibodies. In the simplified ABO red-cell model, it can receive red cells from O, A, B or AB. Real transfusions also require other compatibility checks; AS is a haemoglobin genotype, not an ABO group.

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Question 22

Which statement about common forms of anaerobic glucose breakdown is INCORRECT?

  1. Muscle cells can produce lactate
  2. Some organisms produce carbon dioxide
  3. Lactic-acid bacteria can produce lactate
  4. No usable energy is obtained
  5. Some germinating seeds can produce ethanol
Answer and explanation

D: No usable energy is obtained

Glycolysis can provide a small net ATP yield without oxygen. Fermentation regenerates NAD⁺ so glycolysis can continue. Products depend on the organism: lactate is associated with lactic fermentation, while ethanol and carbon dioxide occur in alcoholic fermentation.

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Question 23

Which combination describes a typical vertebrate gas-exchange surface? 1. Moist; 2. Well supplied with blood; 3. Selectively permeable; 4. Freely permeable to all substances; 5. Dry.

  1. 1, 2, 3
  2. 1, 2, 5
  3. 2, 3, 5
  4. 2, 4, 5
  5. 1, 3, 5
Answer and explanation

A: 1, 2, 3

A gas-exchange surface stays moist so gases can dissolve, and a blood supply maintains concentration gradients. Its thin cellular barrier allows respiratory gases to diffuse without being freely permeable to every substance. A dry barrier would not provide the usual efficient exchange conditions.

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Question 24

The main secretion of a sebaceous gland is

  1. Sweat
  2. Sodium salts
  3. Water
  4. An oily substance
  5. Vitamin D
Answer and explanation

D: An oily substance

Sebaceous glands secrete sebum, an oily mixture that helps lubricate skin and hair. Sweat is produced by sweat glands. Vitamin D synthesis involves skin cells and ultraviolet light rather than secretion by sebaceous glands.

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Question 26

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In the numbered kidney section, Bowman’s capsules are located in the part labelled

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
  5. 5
  6. 6

Question 27

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In the kidney section shown, reabsorption of useful substances occurs in tubules found in which labelled regions?

  1. 1 and 3
  2. 3 and 5
  3. 5 and 6
  4. 6 and 7
  5. 2 and 4

Question 29

The appendicular skeleton consists of the

  1. Limbs alone
  2. Skull and limbs
  3. Phalanges alone
  4. Ulna and radius alone
  5. Girdles and limbs
Answer and explanation

E: Girdles and limbs

The appendicular skeleton includes the limb bones and the pectoral and pelvic girdles that connect them to the body. The skull belongs to the axial skeleton. Phalanges, ulna and radius are only subsets of the appendicular bones.

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Question 30

A maize grain is botanically classified as a fruit because it

  1. Has a large endosperm
  2. Develops from an ovary
  3. Belongs to a monocot plant
  4. Has neither plumule nor radicle
  5. Shows hypogeal germination
Answer and explanation

B: Develops from an ovary

A maize grain is a caryopsis: a dry, one-seeded fruit whose fruit wall is closely fused with the seed coat. Its development from the ovary identifies it as a fruit. The embryo inside still contains structures that form the root and shoot.

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Question 31

Protandry in a bisexual flower can

  1. Make the flower necessarily unisexual
  2. Leave its androecium undeveloped
  3. Remove its androecium
  4. Make insect pollination compulsory
  5. Reduce self-pollination within that flower
Answer and explanation

E: Reduce self-pollination within that flower

In protandry, pollen is released before the stigma of the same flower becomes receptive. The timing reduces the opportunity for self-pollination within that flower. It does not guarantee that pollen cannot move between different flowers on the same plant.

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Question 33

The swollen storage organ of an Irish potato is a

  1. Bulb
  2. Taproot
  3. Rhizome
  4. Root tuber
  5. Stem tuber
Answer and explanation

E: Stem tuber

An Irish potato tuber is an enlarged underground stem. Its eyes are buds associated with nodes, and they can produce new shoots. These stem features distinguish it from a storage root.

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Question 34

The overall observable traits of an organism, resulting from its genotype and environmental influences, are its

  1. Phenotype
  2. Genotype
  3. Morphology
  4. Anatomy
  5. Physiology
Answer and explanation

A: Phenotype

Phenotype includes observable characteristics such as form, physiology and behaviour. It arises through the interaction of inherited information and environmental influences. Genotype refers to genetic constitution rather than the full set of expressed traits.

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Question 35

The main hereditary material of cellular organisms is

  1. ADP
  2. CNS
  3. RNA
  4. ATP
  5. DNA
Answer and explanation

E: DNA

DNA stores the genetic information inherited by cellular organisms. RNA has important roles in expressing that information, but cellular genomes are DNA-based. Some viruses have RNA genomes; viruses are not cellular organisms.

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Question 37

Germination that raises the cotyledons above the ground is called

  1. Hypocotyl
  2. Epicotyl
  3. Epigeal
  4. Hypogeal
  5. Plumule
Answer and explanation

C: Epigeal

In epigeal germination, elongation lifts the cotyledonary region above the soil surface. In hypogeal germination the cotyledons remain below ground. Hypocotyl, epicotyl and plumule name parts of the developing shoot, not this germination category.

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Question 38

Which is the broad coordinating role of the mammalian endocrine system?

  1. Transmission of nerve impulses
  2. Regulation of body temperature alone
  3. Regulation of blood osmotic pressure alone
  4. Chemical coordination through hormones
  5. Manufacture of blood cells alone
Answer and explanation

D: Chemical coordination through hormones

Endocrine glands release hormones that coordinate activity in target tissues. These signals influence many processes, including metabolism, growth and aspects of water balance. Nervous impulses are the main signalling mode of the nervous system.

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Question 40

In a mammal, information from a sensory receptor is carried towards the central nervous system by

  1. Motor neurons
  2. Effector muscles
  3. Dendrites alone
  4. Sensory neurons
  5. Synapses alone
Answer and explanation

D: Sensory neurons

Sensory, or afferent, neurons carry information from receptors towards the central nervous system. Motor neurons carry commands towards effectors such as muscles. Dendrites and synapses participate in signalling but do not name the complete functional neuron type requested.

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Question 43

In the human schistosomiasis life cycle, the definitive and intermediate hosts respectively are

  1. Fish and human
  2. Human and dog
  3. Snail and human
  4. Human and freshwater snail
  5. Fish and snail
Answer and explanation

D: Human and freshwater snail

Adult Schistosoma worms mature and reproduce sexually in the human definitive host. Larval development and multiplication occur in a suitable freshwater snail, the intermediate host. Infective cercariae leave the snail and can penetrate human skin.

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Question 44

Which disease is caused by a parasitic worm rather than a bacterium?

  1. Cholera
  2. Gonorrhoea
  3. Tuberculosis
  4. Onchocerciasis
  5. Typhoid
Answer and explanation

D: Onchocerciasis

Onchocerciasis is caused by the filarial worm Onchocerca volvulus and is transmitted by infected blackflies. The other listed diseases have bacterial causes. A worm is a multicellular animal, distinct from a bacterium.

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Question 45

Tsetse flies are associated with transmission of

  1. River blindness
  2. Malaria
  3. Sleeping sickness
  4. Leprosy
  5. Dysentery
Answer and explanation

C: Sleeping sickness

Infected tsetse flies transmit Trypanosoma parasites that cause African sleeping sickness. River blindness is associated with blackflies and malaria with Anopheles mosquitoes. The insect vector is therefore important for distinguishing these infections.

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Question 46

Which is NOT a usual direct measure for protecting soil from erosion?

  1. Planting cover crops
  2. Contouring sloping ground
  3. Terracing slopes
  4. Laying mulch
  5. Burning off vegetation
Answer and explanation

E: Burning off vegetation

Cover crops and mulch protect the soil surface. Contouring and terracing help reduce the speed or concentration of runoff. Burning off vegetation removes protective cover and can expose the surface to greater erosion, rather than serving as a direct erosion-control measure.

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Question 47

For otherwise comparable soils, which general composition favours high total water retention?

  1. Rich in sand, poor in humus and without clay
  2. Rich in clay and sand but poor in humus
  3. Rich in clay and humus but poor in sand
  4. Rich in clay but poor in humus and without sand
  5. Rich in sand and humus but poor in clay
Answer and explanation

C: Rich in clay and humus but poor in sand

Clay has small pores and a large surface area, while humus also helps hold water. A soil rich in both therefore tends to retain considerable water. Total retained water is not the same as water readily available to plants, because some water may be held too tightly.

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Question 48

The mineral particles in soil originate mainly from

  1. Humus
  2. Water
  3. Microorganisms
  4. Weathered rock
  5. Organic matter
Answer and explanation

D: Weathered rock

Physical and chemical weathering break down rocks and alter minerals, producing the mineral fraction of soil. Humus comes from decomposed organic material. Water and organisms contribute to weathering but are not themselves the main mineral parent material.

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Question 49

Which listed process returns nitrogen gas to the atmosphere?

  1. Denitrification by bacteria
  2. Breakdown of ammonium salts alone
  3. Nitrification by bacteria
  4. Nitrogen fixation in root nodules
  5. Egestion, death and decay alone
Answer and explanation

A: Denitrification by bacteria

Denitrifying microorganisms reduce oxidised nitrogen compounds through a pathway that can release nitrogen gas. Nitrogen fixation moves atmospheric nitrogen into biologically usable compounds, while nitrification converts ammonium to more oxidised forms such as nitrate.

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Question 50

A dry soil sample receives 50 mL of water and 35 mL drains out. If evaporation and other losses are negligible, what percentage of the added water is retained?

  1. 46.7%
  2. 25.0%
  3. 20.0%
  4. 30.0%
  5. 58.3%
Answer and explanation

D: 30.0%

Retained water = 50 − 35 = 15 mL. As a percentage of the 50 mL added, this is (15 ÷ 50) × 100 = 30%. This calculation uses the water added as the denominator; soil mass or soil volume would be needed for a soil-water-content percentage.

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